When is the ball past the fielder?

[Gulf Coast Blue]

Originally Posted by ronald

I have no out for the op. the ball has passed an imaginary line drawn from where the 1b and 3rd baseman normally stand in fp.

I did not see a smiley face.....but hope you are joking.

ASA does not recognize any sort of "String" theory.

The ball actually has to pass and infielder......in Rachel's OP.....it did not.

The ball is dead and the runner is out. Yes......this is going by the black and white of the rule. If ASA wants me to judge anything else, they can create a case play or interpretation in the UM.

Joel

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by Gulf Coast Blue

The ball actually has to pass and infielder......in Rachel's OP.....it did not.

Joel

Which goes back to the OP Q (and mine) of how to define "passes", and how close to the "passed" fielder the ball has to be.

[Gulf Coast Blue]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

Which goes back to the OP Q (and mine) of how to define "passes", and how close to the "passed" fielder the ball has to be.

Passed to me means "Through or by".....the ball actually has to pass somebody...........not by some imaginary line on the infield.....hell.....if we used that definition.....almost no batted ball that hits a runner off the base could be considered interference using the geometry theory..........

Joel

[Tru_in_Blu]

Without meaning to hijack this "string", let's suppose the infield puts on a shift for a left handed batter. F5 still plays close to third base. F3, F4, F6 now all on the right side of the infield.

On the pitch, runner from second attempts a steal of third. Batter hits the ball to where F6 would normally play and the ball strikes the runner.

Has the ball passed an infielder? Out or play on?

[ronald]

from my understandingofthe play, if i am the 3rd baseman and am playing in front of 3rdbase and the ball hits the runner one foot off of second base, how has that ball not passed me?

[tcannizzo]

To me, a ball passing an infielder and hitting a runner means that the ball, the infielder(s) and runner are on the same side of the infield.

If F5 is playing 20 ft from HP and the ball is hit to the right side, I cannot consider the ball passing F5.

[Rachel]

I think that we are getting away from the point here. I don't think anyone would talk about F3 and F5 as "past the infielder" in this situation.

This is a classic "intent of the rule" thought. Is there a play to be made to get an out in the situation (ASA)?

It was pretty fun to listen to two of the best softball officiating minds in the nation argue this point. In the end neither one would concede the point to the other. The rule book (ASA) does not allow the string theory (line between F6 and F4) but perhaps it should.