Reasons for Rules

[tcannizzo]

We all have an understanding of the logic and reason for the existence of certain rules, LBR, IFF, D3K, and countless others.

In some cases, there may be "old wive's tales" which I suspect behind why it is a dead ball strike when the batter gets hit by a pitch while in the act of swinging. The way I heard it told was back in the day, players would take a full swing at a pitch, and purposely allow the ball to hit off their arms/hands, equating to a bunted ball, and that some umpires got fooled by this trick and it was deemed unfair to the defense. Whether true or not, it makes for a good story.

I am interested in researching this topic further and haven't figured out the right search term for google to find a source for this type of information.

Perhaps we can have a fun thread here with this if others have interesting, factual and even unprovable logic for other rules.

What say ye?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by tcannizzo

We all have an understanding of the logic and reason for the existence of certain rules, LBR, IFF, D3K, and countless others.

In some cases, there may be "old wive's tales" which I suspect behind why it is a dead ball strike when the batter gets hit by a pitch while in the act of swinging. The way I heard it told was back in the day, players would take a full swing at a pitch, and purposely allow the ball to hit off their arms/hands, equating to a bunted ball, and that some umpires got fooled by this trick and it was deemed unfair to the defense. Whether true or not, it makes for a good story.

I am interested in researching this topic further and haven't figured out the right search term for google to find a source for this type of information.

Perhaps we can have a fun thread here with this if others have interesting, factual and even unprovable logic for other rules.

What say ye?

I say the ball is dead because it hit the batter and has nothing to do with whether the batter attempted to strike the ball or not.

If you keep the ball live, the defense may not have access to the ball. You think batters intentionally take a hit now, what do you think would happen if the runners could advance while the ball is rolling away from the catcher?

[tcannizzo]

Don't disagree, but you are using what I would refer to as "current thinking" and very logically so.

I am pursuit of rule origins, some of which may differ from current thinking and interpretations, and source of humor.

[tcannizzo]

Heck, even make something up.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by tcannizzo

Don't disagree, but you are using what I would refer to as "current thinking" and very logically so.

I am pursuit of rule origins, some of which may differ from current thinking and interpretations, and source of humor.

No, I checked the rules from 1936

Rule 9 - FAIRLY DELIVERED BALL

Other Cases When Strike Is Called
Sec.4. A pitched ball at which the batsman strikes but misses and which touches any part of his person.

Rule 21 - BALL DEAD, NOT IN PLAY

If pitched Ball Strikes Batsman
(1) If a pitched ball touches any part of the batsman's person or clothing while the batsman is standing in his position, whether the ball be struck at or not.

[tcannizzo]

Good deal.

[Umpteenth]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

No, I checked the rules from 1936

Rule 9 - FAIRLY DELIVERED BALL

Other Cases When Strike Is Called
Sec.4. A pitched ball at which the batsman strikes but misses and which touches any part of his person.

Rule 21 - BALL DEAD, NOT IN PLAY

If pitched Ball Strikes Batsman
(1) If a pitched ball touches any part of the batsman's person or clothing while the batsman is standing in his position, whether the ball be struck at or not.

Wow, I had heard references to your age, but you still have your 1936 Book of Rules?!

[SRW]

Originally Posted by Umpteenth

Wow, I had heard references to your age, but you still have your 1936 Book of Rules?!

He's a co-author.

[tcannizzo]

OK, here is what got me thinking about this.
Why is a CR prohibited from entering the game as a substitute in the same inning?

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by tcannizzo

OK, here is what got me thinking about this.
Why is a CR prohibited from entering the game as a substitute in the same inning?

Because umpires needed another minutia to remember.

BTW, I don't think you'll find this in an old copy of OBR!

[youngump]

Originally Posted by tcannizzo

OK, here is what got me thinking about this.
Why is a CR prohibited from entering the game as a substitute in the same inning?

I don't know if this is the historical reason, but here's why I'd keep this rule. Suppose you have on your team Michael Johnson. But it turns out he can't hit or field. You have your pitcher get on each inning and then you put Johnson on and he proceeds to steal on the next three pitches and score. All fair enough since the rules let you CR with speed. Then it's bottom seven and you're down two runs. The pitcher gets on and three pitches later Johnson scores. This now makes Johnson ineligible as a sub so he can't replace the next batter to reach and keeps him from being used more than once through the lineup in that inning.

[tcannizzo]

What if it was Michael Jackson???

[youngump]

Originally Posted by tcannizzo

What if it was Michael Jackson???

Then you'd probably end up getting to use 8-3-D for the first time in your career.

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by youngump

Then you'd probably end up getting to use 8-3-D for the first time in your career.

Does moon walking count as running?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by tcannizzo

OK, here is what got me thinking about this.
Why is a CR prohibited from entering the game as a substitute in the same inning?

I would think so that the player would not basically occupy/take part in the game under the banner to two slots in the batting order in the same half-inning..