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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 12:26pm
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The reason the I know of is to get both balls into the game. The real rotation only happens at the bottom of the 1st if the starting ball hasn't gone out of play. That just allows both balls to be a little broke in. Nothing worse than going 6 innings and a ball finally going out of play and you give them a new shiny one!
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 12:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DaveASA/FED View Post
The reason the I know of is to get both balls into the game. The real rotation only happens at the bottom of the 1st if the starting ball hasn't gone out of play. That just allows both balls to be a little broke in. Nothing worse than going 6 innings and a ball finally going out of play and you give them a new shiny one!
...and that shiny new one is much harder than the others. One teams gets a bigger advantage being at-bat when the new one comes into play. Not sure that's an absolute fact, but that's a rationale behind ball rotatation.
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 12:43pm
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I understand the reasoning in the first two half innings. I am more interested in later on in the game when the balls have already been put into play. Why do we use standard ball rotation procedures lets say in the 5th inning?
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 12:45pm
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Originally Posted by okla21fan View Post
I understand the reasoning in the first two half innings. I am more interested in later on in the game when the balls have already been put into play. Why do we use standard ball rotation procedures lets say in the 5th inning?
Which rules orgs has a ball rotation requirement after the 1st inning?
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 12:55pm
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Originally Posted by HugoTafurst View Post
Which rules orgs has a ball rotation requirement after the 1st inning?
Be the letter of the rule:
ASA
NFHS
(I cant speak for other orgs as I don't call them)
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 02:11pm
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The most obvious reason is to prevent a doctored or non-legal ball from being introduced into the game. The second reason is to keep the game moving.

If a ball goes out of play and a ball is returned from out of play directly to the pitcher, there is the possibility that it is not a legal ball in some way. If all new ball put in the game go through the umpire, there is a chance to inspect the ball to make sure it's legal.

Also, at some of the fields I work, if I had to wait for a ball to come back in from out of play before we could resume the game, it would add about an hour to my game times!
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 02:56pm
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The other reason is to keep the pitcher from holding up the game because there is a "preferred" ball. Too bad, so sad, ball rotation rule says she can only ask for the ball she wants before warming up at start of an inning. Any other time, she is to throw the ball that is in the game.

The partners that say she can throw whatever ball she wants are choosing to ignore a rule. Once you open up that can, it will bite you.
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Old Thu Apr 28, 2011, 05:08pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Andy View Post
The most obvious reason is to prevent a doctored or non-legal ball from being introduced into the game. The second reason is to keep the game moving.

If a ball goes out of play and a ball is returned from out of play directly to the pitcher, there is the possibility that it is not a legal ball in some way. If all new ball put in the game go through the umpire, there is a chance to inspect the ball to make sure it's legal.

Also, at some of the fields I work, if I had to wait for a ball to come back in from out of play before we could resume the game, it would add about an hour to my game times!
This is a serious issue in the SP game. The "hit your own" BS is just that. The teams replace the balls they use, but they come through me, into the bag. When I need one, whichever one comes out goes into the game. It cannot be fairer than that.
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Old Fri Apr 29, 2011, 10:52am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by okla21fan View Post
Be the letter of the rule:
ASA
NFHS
(I cant speak for other orgs as I don't call them)


I guess I mis-understood your statement
"Why do we use standard ball rotation procedures lets say in the 5th inning? " .

I read it as saying the ball should be rotated out as in the bottom of the 1st inning (NFHS 6-5-Article 1) rather than referring to Article 2 which requires the ball to stay in play untill blocked, out of play, etc.

Yes the 6-5 rule is titled "SECTION 5 BALL ROTATION" but my brain was processing only Article 1 as "rotaction"


NFHS 6-5
ART. 1 . . . The pitcher has a choice of balls at the start of each half inning
unless both balls do not get put into play. In that case, the pitcher in the bottom of the first inning must throw the unused ball. Thereafter, the ball in play should be returned to the 16-foot circle after every half inning.

ART. 2 . . . The pitcher may request the other ball before throwing a warm-up
pitch by giving the ball in her possession to the plate umpire, the pitcher has now made a choice and must pitch that ball until such time as the ball goes out of play or becomes blocked.
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