Does R1 score?

[greymule]

This is why there was a proposed rule change a couple years ago which received support from just about no one.

Somebody proposed going back to the old rule but got little support?

Although I don't understand the reasoning behind the current rule, it hardly makes my list of rules I hate. But I know of no other code that prohibits a post-third-out appeal on a runner solely because the runner didn't score (seems like a strange criterion), and I can't imagine what situation arose to drive ASA to change their rule a few years ago.

Bases loaded, 2 out. BR hits a ball over F8. BR misses 1B on his way around the bases. All 3 runners score. BR also tries to score, but F2 gloves the throw well ahead of the BR.

If F2 tags the BR out, 3 runs will score, since the defense won't be able to appeal the miss at 1B, which would nullify the runs. So F2 has to take a chance and let the BR score a fourth run, hoping the umpire saw the miss at 1B. As I said, strange rule. What was the problem with the old rule?