Interesting situtation...opinions please.

[gumpire]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Think about it for a minute.

If they are not required to run the bases, how can you have a baserunner?

If the batter stepped over 1B and then the ball was declared a home run or a 4-base award, are you going to allow an appeal for the missed base when the player wasn't required to touch it?

If the runner took off for 3B instead of 1B, is that ok because the ball EVENTUALLY went over the fence?

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

By rule, it is either a HR or a four-base award for any fair batted ball which leaves the field in fair territory that does not touch the ground or front of the fence. It is not like the umpire has a choice. Also, by rule, the batter and each runner will be credited with a run. There are no exceptions noted where that would not occur.

By rule, passing a preceeing runner prior to them scoring or being put out is OUT, no exceptions noted.

I don't think there's a rule anywhere that allows us umpires to "predict" what is going to happen.