Illegal pitch NFHS

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by BuggBob

SO if the pitch flips the ball from glove to hand or from hand to glove that don't count as a touch?

No, but ASA does require the ball to stay in one or the other while she is taking or pretending to take the signals from the catcher. (ASA 6-1-D). Fed does not have that statement in their rule.

More info came in from the umpires involved in case 1. R1 @ 2nd, R2 @ 1st, 0-2 count, no outs. On the pass ball R1 scores, R2 ends at 3rd, B3 swings and misses for D3K, since 1st ocupied B3 is out. They allowed the score and awarded a ball to the batter for an illegal pitch. I think that would have been wrong, it is either the play or the penaty, not some hybrid of both. So the end result would be either:
R1 scores, R2 @ 3rd, B3 out, 1 out, next batter bats. -- the Play
Or R1 @ 3rd, R2 @ 2nd, 1-2 count on B3, still no outs. -- the penaty

Your ruling is correct. One or the other, O coach's choice.

[argodad]

Originally Posted by Dakota

No, but ASA does require the ball to stay in one or the other while she is taking or pretending to take the signals from the catcher. (ASA 6-1-D). Fed does not have that statement in their rule.

Your ruling is correct. One or the other, O coach's choice.

Doesn't the batter have to hit the ball (fair or foul) or become a base runner for the O coach choice to become effective?

I have an IP, ball on the batter, each runner advances one base from TOP.

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by argodad

Doesn't the batter have to hit the ball (fair or foul) or become a base runner for the O coach choice to become effective?....

She did...

Originally Posted by BuggBob

...B3 swings and misses for D3K...

But she was out due to 1B occupied and less than 2 outs.

[3SPORT]

Originally Posted by Dakota

But she was out due to 1B occupied and less than 2 outs.

So she was not a legal baserunner as she could not advance to first base.