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I believe this question was on an NCAA test at some level. If the information afforded me was correct, those in a position of interpretating NCAA rules acknowledged that the runner was beyond the base and possibly in jeopardy, but score the run anyway.
And that is fine. And when asked the question by a fellow umpire, I hesitated because I knew where it was going. Is one interpretation more correct than the other? No, because that is the way each wants their rules applied. Will they ever be the same? Maybe, but I would say it is more likely ASA would move before NCAA would ever give it a thought. |
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awarded bases, timming play |
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