Whats the call?

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by mdntranger

But, for there to be interference, there has to be a play. If the ball is foul (by definition), there is no play and therefore no intereference...

My comment was specific to the BR or not aspect. There is a play when a fielder fields a batted ball while foul to prevent it from going fair, thereby eliminating any advance by BR or R.

Originally Posted by MNBlue

The definition of a batter-runner has not been met in the OP, so we can't rule interference by a batter-runner, since we don't have a batter-runner.

My INT call is based on the premise ""We have concluded in at least two other topics that the B to BR transition happens even though the batted ball does not end up being a fair batted ball; because it is not foul until the foul ball criteria apply and because it must be for the application of rules to make sense".