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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 11, 2008, 01:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CecilOne
The OP implies R2 on 2nd also.
I'm not sure that referring to R1 and R3 allows us to assume R2 exists; that runner may well have been forced out at 2nd on the previous play. That notwithstanding, with bases loaded, U1 is still not expected to be on the foul line.
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Old Mon Feb 11, 2008, 01:49pm
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Clarification
Sorry, forgot to add "one out", OP has been edited to add "one out".
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Old Tue Feb 12, 2008, 01:24am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve
I'm not sure that referring to R1 and R3 allows us to assume R2 exists; that runner may well have been forced out at 2nd on the previous play. That notwithstanding, with bases loaded, U1 is still not expected to be on the foul line.
well.... R2 could be hanging out with the 4th umpire, thus somewhat explaining the mechanic..
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Old Tue Feb 12, 2008, 10:53am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve
I'm not sure that referring to R1 and R3 allows us to assume R2 exists; that runner may well have been forced out at 2nd on the previous play. That notwithstanding, with bases loaded, U1 is still not expected to be on the foul line.
Agree, just trying to be sure we covered all the "bases".
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Old Tue Feb 12, 2008, 01:06pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CecilOne
Agree, just trying to be sure we covered all the "bases".
We had all the bases covered, there just wasn't a runner on 2nd.
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