Retroactive Interference?

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by WestMichBlue

Why is it foul?

It's dead because we had interference. Interference is a dead ball.

Did you call Dead Ball while the ball was still in foul territory? If yes, what rule; what is your interpretation?

Uh... go read the interference rule - this sitch is specifically stated. It is interference when a fielder is interfered while fielding a ball. The penalty if the ball is foul is simply a foul ball. By rule.

If no, then the ball eventually rolled fair and settled (between home and 3B). Why isn't this a fair ball?

Because it was dead while in foul territory - everything after that never happened.

So - the question: "If a runner hinders or prevents a defender from fielding a ball in foul territory, is that interference?"

Yes, by rule.