Question on a case play:

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by josephrt1

I think you are mixing situations. The runner closest to home would be called out only if the runner who interfered (batter-runner going to first) had already been put out. In this case she (batter-runner) had not already been put out. So simply a dead ball, batter-runner out for interference. 2 Outs.

Another note, is that in an attempt to break up a double play, the trailing runner is also out (not runner closest to home). [USA rule set]

Also hard to understand in this scenario how batter-runner is trying to break up a double play.

A batter-runner is not a runner.

Breaking up a DP: if the interference is by a runner not yet retired, the trailing runner is also out. If by a retired runner, the runner closest to home is also out (which could end up being a trailing runner).

Assume for our purposes that the batter-runner IS trying to break up a DP (because I told you so).

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

A batter-runner is not a runner.

Breaking up a DP: if the interference is by a runner not yet retired, the trailing runner is also out. If by a retired runner, the runner closest to home is also out (which could end up being a trailing runner).

Assume for our purposes that the runner IS trying to break up a DP (because I told you so).

Which runner and how?

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Which runner and how?

The batter-runner running to first base the entire way in fair territory.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

The batter-runner running to first base the entire way in fair territory.

And other than with the defender receiving the throw at first (assuming s/he had reached the lane), what play did the retired BR interfere?

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

And other than with the defender receiving the throw at first (assuming s/he had reached the lane), what play did the retired BR interfere?

Just the play at first base. And the BR is not considered retired until such time as the umpire declares the INT and calls a dead ball.

Now the rule for BR interference doesn't specify that the act be intentional. Although I can accept that an action that is an attempt to break up a DP could involve an intentional act.

In any case, if you are the umpire in this case, and in your judgement you maintain that whatever the act was on the part of the BR was an attempt to prevent the DP, how do you rule?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

Just the play at first base. And the BR is not considered retired until such time as the umpire declares the INT and calls a dead ball.

Now the rule for BR interference doesn't specify that the act be intentional. Although I can accept that an action that is an attempt to break up a DP could involve an intentional act.

In any case, if you are the umpire in this case, and in your judgement you maintain that whatever the act was on the part of the BR was an attempt to prevent the DP, how do you rule?

You are asking me to make a ruling on a TWP. Given the scenario, there is no possibility of another out.

IMO, you are trying to read too much into this rule.

[Tru_in_Blu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Given the scenario, there is no possibility of another out.

I bet you could sell it!