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Old Thu May 05, 2016, 02:06pm
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Originally Posted by CecilOne View Post
------------------------------------------------------------------

Very Ambiguous

R1 is on first base; B2 is at bat with an 0-2 count and no outs. B2 swings at a third strike that is dropped by the catcher. B2 runs toward first base. As R1 is diving back to first base, B2 is hit in the back with F2's throw to first base and the ball goes out of play. What is the result of the play?
a. B2 is awarded second base; R1 is awarded third base.
b. B2 is declared out for interference; R1 remains at first base.
c. B2 is declared out for interference; R1 is awarded second base.
d. B2 has struck out; R1 remains at first base.
e. B2 has struck out and is charged with interference; R1 is declared out as the runner closest to home.
Explanation 8-6-16c Penalty

As discussed, it could be INT if judged so as hindering fielder’s catch, HTBT.
The throw was late enough that R1 had time to advance, react, then return to dive back.
Wait wait wait. There are no outs and 1st base is occupied. B2 swings at a third strike SO SHE HAS STRUCK OUT FULL STOP. Anything that happens after that is irrelevant to B2. B2's next destination is the dugout, not 2B.

Am I missing something here? B2 is out and R1 can be awarded 3B on the thrown ball to dead ball territory. Or maybe it's INT, although 8-6-16c says offensive team INT is not applicable to a BR running on the dropped third strike rule. HTBT, of course. This player is NOT entitled to run as a BR under the D3K rule, though; she's out already. Answer: (f), no correct answer but (e) is plausible. A thrown ball has gone out of play, so absent an INT ruling, R1 isn't staying at 1B. (A) is the least correct answer, because it's wrong unless I have completely boned the third-strike rule.
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Last edited by teebob21; Thu May 05, 2016 at 04:07pm. Reason: typos and stuff
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Old Sun May 08, 2016, 11:28pm
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Originally Posted by teebob21 View Post
Wait wait wait. There are no outs and 1st base is occupied. B2 swings at a third strike SO SHE HAS STRUCK OUT FULL STOP. Anything that happens after that is irrelevant to B2. B2's next destination is the dugout, not 2B.

Am I missing something here? B2 is out and R1 can be awarded 3B on the thrown ball to dead ball territory. Or maybe it's INT, although 8-6-16c says offensive team INT is not applicable to a BR running on the dropped third strike rule. HTBT, of course. This player is NOT entitled to run as a BR under the D3K rule, though; she's out already. Answer: (f), no correct answer but (e) is plausible. A thrown ball has gone out of play, so absent an INT ruling, R1 isn't staying at 1B. (A) is the least correct answer, because it's wrong unless I have completely boned the third-strike rule.
I'm glad I am not the only one who caught this.
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Old Wed May 11, 2016, 10:46am
JDM JDM is offline
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Why couldn't the B2 attempt to get to 1st if the R1 was attempting to get to 2nd at the beginning of the play?
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Old Wed May 11, 2016, 12:43pm
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Originally Posted by JDM View Post
Why couldn't the B2 attempt to get to 1st if the R1 was attempting to get to 2nd at the beginning of the play?
Because those are the rules. 1st has to be open at the time of pitch or there must be 2 outs for the B to become a BR on a dropped third strike.
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Old Wed May 11, 2016, 12:54pm
JDM JDM is offline
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If R1 doesn't go to 2nd with 2 outs on a dropped 3rd strike, could the fielders tag R1 standing on 1st for a out or is the batter out if the R1 doesn't try to advance to 2nd?
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Old Wed May 11, 2016, 01:16pm
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Originally Posted by JDM View Post
If R1 doesn't go to 2nd with 2 outs on a dropped 3rd strike, could the fielders tag R1 standing on 1st for a out or is the batter out if the R1 doesn't try to advance to 2nd?
I auggest you take this back to basics rather than thinking of the runner's and BR's status being different because it was a D3K.

With less than 2 outs and 1B empty at the time of the pitch or with 2 outs, if strike 3 is uncaught, the batter becomes a batter-runner.

Everything after that is exactly the same as for any other reason the batter becomes a batter-runner.
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Old Wed May 11, 2016, 01:16pm
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Originally Posted by JDM View Post
If R1 doesn't go to 2nd with 2 outs on a dropped 3rd strike, could the fielders tag R1 standing on 1st for a out or is the batter out if the R1 doesn't try to advance to 2nd?
It becomes a force play. For example, with the bases loaded on a D3K & 2 outs, the catcher merely has to step on the plate with possession of the ball. Forces are in effect at all bases.
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