Whose Ball Following This Play

[CT1]

Originally Posted by mbyron

So the new play is as follows:

Fourth down and 10 from midfield. K's punt is muffed on the R 40 and rebounds back behind the neutral zone, where K2 picks it up at the K45 yard line, runs to the R48, and throws an incomplete pass to ineligible K79. Where will the ball be put in play next?

The ineligible downfield (if K79 was downfield) and illegal touching (if K79 touched the pass) are ignored since we have an illegal forward pass. K's recovery and advance are legal. The foul for IFP will be enforced from the spot of the foul, 5 yards, back to the K47. IFP carries a LOD, so it will be R's ball, 1/10 @ K47, clock on the snap.

I hope you meant "K's ball".

This is realistically a COP play, and the LOD aspect of the penalty has no effect.

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by CT1

I hope you meant "K's ball".

This is realistically a COP play, and the LOD aspect of the penalty has no effect.

When did team possession change?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Robert Goodman

When did team possession change?

No need to be obtuse... he didn't say possession changed, he said it was realistically a COP play. Probably not the best word, I'd have gone with essentially instead of realistically. But you know what he meant.

(And if you don't ... answer my question, I was going to the same place he was, I was just trying to walk the poster there instead of just giving the answer).

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

No need to be obtuse... he didn't say possession changed, he said it was realistically a COP play. Probably not the best word, I'd have gone with essentially instead of realistically. But you know what he meant.

Actually I didn't, but if i'd been more awake when I read it, I would've. I'd misread a detail of what he wrote, got onto the wrong track.

[CT1]

Evidently, I should have used the phrase "For enforcement purposes, this is a COP play".

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Robert Goodman

Actually I didn't, but if i'd been more awake when I read it, I would've. I'd misread a detail of what he wrote, got onto the wrong track.

Cool.

[mtridge]

If it a complete pass to K79 do we take ignore the OPI and take IFP or vica verca?

[dvasques]

Ok... I know the original question was Federation rules but since I'm back and still working IFAF/NCAA rules here in Brasil, I gotta ask about this situation...
muffed kick beyond NZ bounces back behind NZ, R picks it up and passes forward from behind NZ

That's a legal pass in NCAA/IFAF?

[CT1]

Originally Posted by mtridge

If it a complete pass to K79 do we take ignore the OPI and take IFP or vica verca?

No, you don't ignore it. But you do call the correct foul.

If K79 has done nothing other than catch the ball, it's Illegal Touching, not OPI.

Same penalty yardage, although the basic spot for the IT would be the previous spot. You still can't enforce the LOD provision.

[mtridge]

It would be a OPI. Case book 7.5.13 If ineligible catches the ball beyond the LOS it is OPI