Another question on Ariz/GB fumble

[JRSooner]

It was ruled a fumble not an interception, and he obviously grabbed Rodgers facemask, but what if he grabbed it after the fumble had already occurred? I swear the ball was not in his possession when he grabbed his facemask and if so would that change the ruling. I'm not an official but I would think if it was ruled an INT and the ball was in the air at the time of the facemask it would result in GB keeping the ball after a 15 yd penalty, but if it was a fumble I'm not so sure. Maybe an AZ player would have to actually be in possession of the ball for it to matter, but I'm not sure. Any ideas on this?

[bbcof83]

Originally Posted by JRSooner

It was ruled a fumble not an interception, and he obviously grabbed Rodgers facemask, but what if he grabbed it after the fumble had already occurred? I swear the ball was not in his possession when he grabbed his facemask and if so would that change the ruling. I'm not an official but I would think if it was ruled an INT and the ball was in the air at the time of the facemask it would result in GB keeping the ball after a 15 yd penalty, but if it was a fumble I'm not so sure. Maybe an AZ player would have to actually be in possession of the ball for it to matter, but I'm not sure. Any ideas on this?

Nothing changes. Grabbing the facemask is not a foul in the NFL.

Hypothetical: If there was a foul by the defense before they gained possession, then the defense obtained the ball with "dirty hands." The offense would have the options of: take the penalty, keep the ball and the yardage would be assessed from the spot of the foul. Or they could decline it and game over.