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Old Sat Mar 07, 2009, 08:32pm
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Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: Mullica Hill, NJ
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I saw an article in Referee magazine a while back that explained this rule with some playpic diagrams. Basically, if a team A player has not yet occupied the yardline of a team B player OR if that same team A player was on a yardline occupied by a team B player and facing toward him, then he was a potential blocker in both of these situations.

So, to have illegal use of hands the team A player must not be beyond the yardline of the team B player (when contacted) by a team B player. Or, if they are occupying the same yardline the team A player must be facing away from the team B player to call this foul.

My apologies in advance if someone pointed this out. This thread was long to read.
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