Case Book Question

[Theisey]

The kick ended at the time the IW was blown.
Where ever the ball was is the end-of-kick stop. Hopefully one of the officials was alert enough to bag that spot.

[GPC2]

But Thiesey, by saying that the R16 is the end of the kick, do you not imply that R would conceivably be able to play the ball from that spot had they not fouled prior to the IW?

[Theisey]

After I got home and has some free time to review the changed IW section in rule 4, I thought it would to allow for PSK to apply in as in this play.

However, the more I read the section, the more I became convinced that PSK does not apply and therefore the penalty will probably be accepted by team-K and marked off from the previous spot.

Maybe their intent was to allow PSK, but I don't see that in the way the rule was rewritten. To bad as it would be have been a better solution to a bad situation.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by Theisey

After I got home and has some free time to review the changed IW section in rule 4, I thought it would to allow for PSK to apply in as in this play.

However, the more I read the section, the more I became convinced that PSK does not apply and therefore the penalty will probably be accepted by team-K and marked off from the previous spot.

Maybe their intent was to allow PSK, but I don't see that in the way the rule was rewritten. To bad as it would be have been a better solution to a bad situation.

So you'd give K a first down in the OP? (Plus 15 more when you kick out the R coach?)
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[mbyron]

Why wouldn't PSK apply? The foul occurred on R, after the kick, and before the kick ended.

[Theisey]

Well, who's in possession of the ball when the IW is blown. Where is that clearly defined? Is it really team-R or is it really still team-K.

I just looked into the 2008 "Redding" guide for NFHS football and a similar play says that team-R is not in possession at this time. Therefore if that is correct, and their play result says so, team-R is not in possession. That means PSK does not apply.

Don't kill the messenger here... I thought I new this area of the game cold but now I'm not so sure I do.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Theisey

Well, who's in possession of the ball when the IW is blown. Where is that clearly defined? Is it really team-R or is it really still team-K.

The IW with the (loose) ball rolling around makes the ball dead, which ends the kick, just as if the ball had come to rest on the ground. Why wouldn't R possess the ball? Doesn't it matter that the loose ball was kicked?

I'm not looking to kill a messenger, I just don't see the rationale for the message.