Clarification ?

[Bob M.]

Originally Posted by Simbio

Let's change the scenario. Instead of a foul by A, let's change it to a foul by B. A friend of mine and I have debated this one till we're blue in the face. We were hoping the new ruling would help this scenario, but it doesn't appear to:

A's ball 1 and 10 from the B15 yard line. A throws a pass and it is intercepted by B27 in the endzone. While trying to run the ball out, B27 fumbles the ball which goes out of the endzone and out of bounds at the 2 yard line. Prior to the ball going out of bounds, B blocks in the back at the 10 yard line.

What do you have?

REPLY: You're right. The way the 10-4-6 currently reads, it only covers fouls by the opponents of the team in possession. It shouldn't. We goofed. It should cover fouls by either team. Your play is a good example. A better example would be if B blocked illegally at B's 30.