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GS/NO end of overtime
Is it traveling in the NBA if a player falls to the floor holding the ball. With a few seconds left in OT, the GS guy did just that. Perhaps he bobbled it as he fell, but I just wondered if that had to have been the ruling to avoid the violation.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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I thought there was an interesting "off the ball" call late in OT where the penalty was one shot and the ball. Why is that call different than holding a cutter? |
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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To answer the first question, yes it is legal under NBA rules for a player to fall to the floor while holding the ball. He could even stand right back up with the ball and be legal.
The 2nd question, the foul was considered an away-from-the-play foul. A foul that occurs with 2 minutes or less left in the 4th or overtime, that occurs away from the ball, is penalized by one shot and the ball. Any player on the floor at the time of the foul may shoot the FT's.
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Judgment.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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I guess the ref would try to determine the 'intention' of the foul--was it done as part of a strategy (i.e. stop the clock, put a poor foul shooter on the line, etc...) or was the foul a consequence of normal competitive defensive play--in either case it would obviously be a 'judgement call'--which always opens up a whole nother can of worms.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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At minimum I can agree with you that at least all the crew members would "agree" with each other if publically and directly questioned by the coach, media, or peradventure their assignor/commissioner. However, given the "suspect nature" of the call which is a natural consequence of using "judgement" to rule on the play, it's quite a stretch to think that all crew members would've "judged" said play the same--regardless of their extent of training.
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How about the Curry 3 with 11 seconds left in regulation to cut it to 107-105? An absolute travel under basketball rules, but was not sure about its legality in the NBA.
Video would help, of course, but he pump faked, then took a full step to the right, lifting and putting his right foot down first, then doing the same with his left (pivot) foot. Replays were weak and not so conveniently left the feet out of the frame, but it was obvious enough live. Any insight? |
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NBA says Warriors guard Stephen Curry was fouled on tying 3-pointer in Game 3 With all the video reviews that it does have, the NBA makes no provisions for getting a foul call correct on potentially the games last shot. What a joke! If an official were to get blocked out the team just has to live with it on a jumpshot, but if the play is an OOB that isn't seen, then video can be consulted. Nonsense. In other news the League released its new slogan: NBA basketball -- it's just entertainment for silly rich people. |
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The NBA said the 'away from the play' foul should have been a common foul. That looked like a textbook 'away from the play foul' which is why I am against the rule in the first place and definitely expanding it for the whole game as Silver wants to do. No one agrees on what 'away from the play' actually means.
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Catch or no catch in the NFL if the play involves controlling the ball.
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For us, yes there are criteria for calling a foul but many times those criteria aren't concrete. For example, affecting RSBQ is judgment in many cases.
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