Gonzaga vs Duke Push with ball (Video)

[Adam]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

Displacement is displacement. If A1 displaces B1 with the ball, intent should not dictate whether or not you call a foul. If A1 accidentally displaces B1 with the ball why would it be any less of a foul?

Here's the most cogent argument I can come up with for that position.

This is an advantage not intended by the rule. If the player is using the loophole intentionally to gain an advantage, then close the loophole and call the foul.

Like I said before, though, I can't imagine a situation where I see it so clearly I can tell his hand didn't make contact. I'll cross that bridge when I get to it, I suppose.