Gonzaga vs Duke Push with ball (Video)

[Adam]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

Displacement is displacement. If A1 displaces B1 with the ball, intent should not dictate whether or not you call a foul. If A1 accidentally displaces B1 with the ball why would it be any less of a foul?

Here's the most cogent argument I can come up with for that position.

This is an advantage not intended by the rule. If the player is using the loophole intentionally to gain an advantage, then close the loophole and call the foul.

Like I said before, though, I can't imagine a situation where I see it so clearly I can tell his hand didn't make contact. I'll cross that bridge when I get to it, I suppose.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Adam

Here's the most cogent argument I can come up with for that position.

This is an advantage not intended by the rule. If the player is using the loophole intentionally to gain an advantage, then close the loophole and call the foul.

Like I said before, though, I can't imagine a situation where I see it so clearly I can tell his hand didn't make contact. I'll cross that bridge when I get to it, I suppose.

For that matter (and if you really wanted to get silly about the whole thing), you could say that B doesn't really commit a blocking foul (or A doesn't really push off) if the contact with A is only through B's shirt since the two players never really touch. Anyone trying to make that argument? :/

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Adam

Here's the most cogent argument I can come up with for that position.

This is an advantage not intended by the rule. If the player is using the loophole intentionally to gain an advantage, then close the loophole and call the foul.

Like I said before, though, I can't imagine a situation where I see it so clearly I can tell his hand didn't make contact. I'll cross that bridge when I get to it, I suppose.

I don't see myself ever calling a PF for someone "using the basketball" to create space/displace/etc. If someone else wants to call it, that's fine with me. But what I won't accept is any official telling me my position is wrong by rule, yet they have no rule, case play, or interp to cite to indicate that I am wrong.

[Pantherdreams]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I don't see myself ever calling a PF for someone "using the basketball" to create space/displace/etc. If someone else wants to call it, that's fine with me. But what I won't accept is any official telling me my position is wrong by rule, yet they have no rule, case play, or interp to cite to indicate that I am wrong.

The sticking point here seems to be that we want contact using the ball to be treated differently then the rest of the equipment being used. We don't judge contact with a sweat band, arm sleeve, jersey, sneaker differently becuse they made contact with the item/possession between the body parts? Easy solution is to treat the ball the same way. Kid uses sneaker (with foot inside) to trip a player, kid uses jersey (filled with chest) to bump a player off the spot, player uses ball (held in hands) to create space by pushing off . . . call the fouls.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Pantherdreams

The sticking point here seems to be that we want contact using the ball to be treated differently then the rest of the equipment being used. We don't judge contact with a sweat band, arm sleeve, jersey, sneaker differently becuse they made contact with the item/possession between the body parts? Easy solution is to treat the ball the same way. Kid uses sneaker (with foot inside) to trip a player, kid uses jersey (filled with chest) to bump a player off the spot, player uses ball (held in hands) to create space by pushing off . . . call the fouls.

Players don't wear basketballs. Everything you listed belongs solely to each player and moves with the player. They are all part of the individual player's uniform and equipment. They are treated as one and the same as the player. If I grab a players jersey I get charged with a foul for illegally contacting that player; no such punishment for grabbing the basketball.

The ball is singular and separate from the player. So that argument doesn't sway me.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I don't see myself ever calling a PF for someone "using the basketball" to create space/displace/etc. If someone else wants to call it, that's fine with me. But what I won't accept is any official telling me my position is wrong by rule, yet they have no rule, case play, or interp to cite to indicate that I am wrong.

Not only do they not have such a cite, they don't even have a cite to indicate they're even possibly right. Personally, I think it falls under the unintended advantage clause, but this isn't a major issue, IMO.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Adam

Not only do they not have such a cite, they don't even have a cite to indicate they're even possibly right. Personally, I think it falls under the unintended advantage clause, but this isn't a major issue, IMO.

And I have no problem with any official having that outlook on the play. My opinion about play-calling is that you only call what you can explain. Make the call, and if the coach asks, be willing to confidently say that's why you made the call. But some folks here acts as if there is some black-and-white reference that makes such an interpretation an absolute.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

And I have no problem with any official having that outlook on the play. My opinion about play-calling is that you only call what you can explain. Make the call, and if the coach asks, be willing to confidently say that's why you made the call. But some folks here acts as if there is some black-and-white reference that makes such an interpretation an absolute.

Agreed. I also don't have an issue with someone who might argue that if you think the kid is trying to take advantage of a loophole, just stick him with the T to put a stop to it.