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Old Mon Mar 30, 2015, 12:50pm
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Like most things I assume this is a learned behaviour. I doubt a college freshmen who's played all over the world got stressed and suddenly in a moment of desperate improvisation thought "I'll push him with the ball and see what happens!"

If he's doing it he's done it before. If it has consistently been called a foul before he probably wouldn't be doing it now and at this level. That would tend to imply that there are a lot of officials who do not see it as a foul.
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Old Mon Mar 30, 2015, 02:00pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pantherdreams View Post
Like most things I assume this is a learned behaviour. I doubt a college freshmen who's played all over the world got stressed and suddenly in a moment of desperate improvisation thought "I'll push him with the ball and see what happens!"

If he's doing it he's done it before. If it has consistently been called a foul before he probably wouldn't be doing it now and at this level. That would tend to imply that there are a lot of officials who do not see it as a foul.
I have never seen anyone expose the ball like that by using it and bringing it to a defender so they can easily steal it. If it is taught, there are not many defenders smart enough to realize he just gave a better opportunity to take the ball.

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Old Mon Mar 30, 2015, 03:07pm
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Since the hand is part of the ball the ball is part of the hand. PC foul all the way, why should the rules care that the defender had a "better" chance at a steal?

Then we should call all fouls based on who had the best chance at a positive outcome.
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Old Mon Mar 30, 2015, 03:27pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by deecee View Post
Since the hand is part of the ball the ball is part of the hand. PC foul all the way, why should the rules care that the defender had a "better" chance at a steal?

Then we should call all fouls based on who had the best chance at a positive outcome.
What rule says that? The only rule that says that we pass on contact is when hand is hit when it is contact with the ball. Nothing in the rules says the actions of a hand has anything to do with contact to call a foul.

I also did not say the rules had anything to do with a better chance to steal the ball. But if you extend my arms into your body, I can steal the ball easier. That is probably why you do not see this very often (at least I don't). Heck players are taught to protect the ball, not give the defender a better chance to take it from them.

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Old Mon Mar 30, 2015, 03:42pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by deecee View Post
Since the hand is part of the ball the ball is part of the hand. PC foul all the way, why should the rules care that the defender had a "better" chance at a steal?

Then we should call all fouls based on who had the best chance at a positive outcome.
My basketball doesn't have hands attached to it. (Neither does my baseball bat).
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Old Mon Mar 30, 2015, 05:06pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich View Post
I'd call that a foul every time.
Quote:
Originally Posted by deecee View Post
Using the ball as you own personal mechanism to displace an opponent may not be specifically spelled out in the rule book for some folks on here but here is a spot where common sense should kick in.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pantherdreams View Post
... consistently been called a foul before he probably wouldn't be doing it now and at this level. That would tend to imply that there are a lot of officials who do not see it as a foul.
For most (maybe not all) of us, it's not a matter of calling, or not calling a foul, it's a matter of calling a personal foul (player control foul), or a technical foul? There are differences in the penalty for each type that makes this matter.
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