NBA weird play- in NFHS?

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by mutantducky

in the warriors game. Irving went up for a shot, Barnes pushes Mozgov into Irving so it is the screener making contact on Irving. Ref calls the foul and Irving makes the shot. Mozgov shoots one free throw. Would that be the same for NFHS?
For NFHS
The ball was released Would have it been different if it hadn't been, but in motion?
If the shot was missed? Does the screener shoot fts? Is it a two shot say if it is bonus do you go there, or not in bonus would it be non-shooting then just have the offensive team take the ball out?

The NBA and NFHS differ greatly on this play.

The NBA rule is that if the try counts the fouled player (the screener) shoots only 1 FT. I don't know the NBA rule if the try is missed.

The NFHS rules are that the try being made or missed has nothing to do with a foul on a non-shooter. The try will count if made. The foul is penalized according to the applicable bonus situation--either 2 FTs, 1-1, or no FTs and a throw-in being awarded.

Curiously, I had it happen in a game last night. The team was not in the bonus and the try was not successful, so the offended team merely got the ball for a throw-in.

[APG]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

T

The NBA rule is that if the try counts the fouled player (the screener) shoots only 1 FT. I don't know the NBA rule if the try is missed.

If the field goal attempt (try) was missed, A1 (the shooter) would receive two shots.

[justacoach]

Originally Posted by APG

If the field goal attempt (try) was missed, A1 (the shooter) would receive two shots.

APG: Could you expand on the ruling in NBA this year about defender 'pushing' the screener. Is it normal for this to be called by an off ball official?

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by APG

If the field goal attempt (try) was missed, A1 (the shooter) would receive two shots.

I understand their philosophy of having the screener (A2) get 1 shot if A1's shot goes in. But why would A1 get the shots? A1 wasn't fouled? Shouldn't A2 be shooting any shots that are due since A2 was fouled? Is the idea that the foul indirectly disrupted the shooter?