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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:35pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BryanV21 View Post
And fumbling the ball, unless you judge it to be done intentionally, is not control.
Explain this please.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:35pm
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Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Explain this please.
Like Amenred just said... "If you deem the player is purposely fumbling the ball then you can say there is control and call the travel."
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:42pm
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If you mean the player who jumps up in the air, has no place to go, then "accidentally" drops the ball, yeah. Other than that, I still don't see a travel call.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:49pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BryanV21 View Post
Like Amenred just said... "If you deem the player is purposely fumbling the ball then you can say there is control and call the travel."
By rule, a fumble is an accidental act ...

4-21
A fumble is the accidental loss of player control when the ball unintentionally drops or slips from a player's grasp.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:50pm
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Originally Posted by PG_Ref View Post
By rule, a fumble is an accidental act ...

4-21
A fumble is the accidental loss of player control when the ball unintentionally drops or slips from a player's grasp.
Thank you for clearing that up.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 09:46pm
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Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Explain this please.
If he's purposefully "bobbling" the ball, you have a dribble that violates 4-15-2.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:09pm
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Originally Posted by Adam View Post
If he's purposefully "bobbling" the ball, you have a dribble that violates 4-15-2.
Which is not a travel, which was my point.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:28pm
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Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Which is not a travel, which was my point.
Ok, illegal dribble, still a violation.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:34pm
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Originally Posted by Adam View Post
Ok, illegal dribble, still a violation.
Wouldn't an illegal dribble indicate that there was one dribble that ended? "A player shall not dribble a second time after his/her first dribble has ended, unless it is after he/she has lost control because of..."

In the OP the player never dribbled. So if the player intentionally batted the ball in the air (had control) and moved his pivot foot isn't this a travel?
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:49pm
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Originally Posted by BryanV21 View Post
Wouldn't an illegal dribble indicate that there was one dribble that ended? "A player shall not dribble a second time after his/her first dribble has ended, unless it is after he/she has lost control because of..."

In the OP the player never dribbled. So if the player intentionally batted the ball in the air (had control) and moved his pivot foot isn't this a travel?

The only way a bat = control is when it is a part of a dribble. If a rebound comes off and a player bats it into the air he may (hypothetically) do so an unlimited number of times and proceed from one end of the court to the other without violation.
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Old Thu Dec 18, 2014, 12:58am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BryanV21 View Post
Wouldn't an illegal dribble indicate that there was one dribble that ended? "A player shall not dribble a second time after his/her first dribble has ended, unless it is after he/she has lost control because of..."

In the OP the player never dribbled. So if the player intentionally batted the ball in the air (had control) and moved his pivot foot isn't this a travel?
Again, see 4-15-2
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Old Sun Dec 21, 2014, 11:37pm
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I realize that it is "unconventional" ball handling which occurs on the infrequently observed "running bobble" by A2 or other A# as you,ve described but we have Nothing. So, although a ref may cognitively know that A# purposefully utilized the "running bobble" to obtain offensive advantage ie men s rea, we still have Nothing. Play on.
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Old Mon Dec 22, 2014, 08:42am
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Originally Posted by Kansas Ref View Post
A# purposefully utilized the "running bobble" to obtain offensive advantage ie men s rea, we still have Nothing. Play on.
That's a different play, with a different ruling.
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Old Wed Dec 17, 2014, 10:49pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Adam View Post
If he's purposefully "bobbling" the ball, you have a dribble that violates 4-15-2.
this section would not apply unless it happened "during the dribble." if you pass it to me and i bobble it down the floor on purpose, never pushing or batting the ball to the floor, this section doesnt apply.
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Old Thu Dec 18, 2014, 11:29am
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Originally Posted by BigCat View Post
this section would not apply unless it happened "during the dribble." if you pass it to me and i bobble it down the floor on purpose, never pushing or batting the ball to the floor, this section doesnt apply.
Sure it does. 1. It's an advantage not intended by the rules. 2. It's actually against the dribbling rule.
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