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Where does it say that?
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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That doesn't back up your claim any more than 12-5-2 once 4-4-6 is considered.
And I do agree with the violation in principle, but those rules just don't support your above statement.
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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The whole point is that 4-4-6 is not to be considered. If there is an interrupted dribble (and there is here, it's a given in the OP) then, by definition there is no player control. If there is no player control, then there is no dribble. If there is no player control and no dribble then 4-4-2 /4-4-3 are the only rules which could define the location of the ball.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove Last edited by just another ref; Wed Nov 05, 2014 at 04:12am. |
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Again, I don't think that is really the right direction, but it isn't so clear as you like to say. So, lets just call it a blarge. ![]()
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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The OP states that the "A1 picks up the ball while still having backcourt status", after the ball touched in the front court during an interupted dribble.
For those who are arguing that this is a violation, would the call/opinion change if instead of picking up the ball, "A1 simply resumes his dribble" while still having at least a foot in the backcourt? |
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No, any touch would still give the ball backcourt status.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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Once you declare that the dribble is interrupted there is no longer player control. When the ball first lands in the front court it gains front court status. When the player "resumes" the dribble with a foot in the backcourt he has changed the status/location of the ball. It is now in the backcourt. violation still. thx |
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