Shooting Foul? (Video)

[Adam]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

This is so blatantly wrong I can no longer take any other thing you might say on here seriously. ALL that matters is what he was doing at the moment of the foul. Whatever happens afterward is completely irrelevant - and the rule says pretty much exactly that.

I recall a pretty long debate not to long ago where quite a few took just that position. If a player starts to shoot, gets fouled, and then passes the ball, many here are going with a pass and thus no free throws (unless in the bonus).

In the OP, if the player hadn't had the ball knocked away from him, a few more would advocate for no shots.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Adam

I recall a pretty long debate not to long ago where quite a few took just that position. If a player starts to shoot, gets fouled, and then passes the ball, many here are going with a pass and thus no free throws (unless in the bonus).

In the OP, if the player hadn't had the ball knocked away from him, a few more would advocate for no shots.

I remember that. I believe that most, then, were saying that they couldn't award shots if the player passed the ball because they could not read the player's mind and didn't know if he was initially passing or shooting. Arem, however, said "if he gets fouled and decides to pass the ball instead of attempt a shot" - CLEARLY stating that this decision was AFTER the foul. The former is wrong (imho). The latter ... so incredibly wrong it can't be justified.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

I remember that. I believe that most, then, were saying that they couldn't award shots if the player passed the ball because they could not read the player's mind and didn't know if he was initially passing or shooting. Arem, however, said "if he gets fouled and decides to pass the ball instead of attempt a shot" - CLEARLY stating that this decision was AFTER the foul. The former is wrong (imho). The latter ... so incredibly wrong it can't be justified.

I really don't see a practical difference between the two.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

I remember that. I believe that most, then, were saying that they couldn't award shots if the player passed the ball because they could not read the player's mind and didn't know if he was initially passing or shooting. Arem, however, said "if he gets fouled and decides to pass the ball instead of attempt a shot" - CLEARLY stating that this decision was AFTER the foul. The former is wrong (imho). The latter ... so incredibly wrong it can't be justified.

If you can't tell what he was doing prior to the contact, well, you'll just have to make that decision anyway, one way or the other. Different officials seem to lean in different directions on this.

But in the case I'm remembering, it was a given that it was a shot attempt, but the contact forced the change to a pass. Some said they still wouldn't award free throws. BNR may be one of these and could elaborate.