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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Dec 27, 2013, 04:47pm
Lighten up, Francis.
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by stick View Post
I do know that any foul that occurs after a whistle is a dead ball foul which means it's either a technical or intentional.
I don't mean to pile on about your rules knowledge, but the above statement is not actually true. There is a case in which a foul committed during a dead ball ("after the whistle") would be a personal foul.

Additionally, dead balls happen all the time without a whistle, so it's possible to have a technical foul during a dead ball period which is not preceded by a whistle.
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Old Fri Dec 27, 2013, 05:43pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1 View Post
I don't mean to pile on about your rules knowledge, but the above statement is not actually true. There is a case in which a foul committed during a dead ball ("after the whistle") would be a personal foul.

Additionally, dead balls happen all the time without a whistle, so it's possible to have a technical foul during a dead ball period which is not preceded by a whistle.
And in fact if this foul had occurred prior to the whistle due to a delayed whistle (I've had this before), then it would still be an intentional technical foul.
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Old Fri Dec 27, 2013, 06:22pm
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Originally Posted by Adam View Post
And in fact if this foul had occurred prior to the whistle due to a delayed whistle (I've had this before), then it would still be an intentional technical foul.
... because the first foul, not the whistle, made the ball dead (unless the foul was by an opponent of a player in the act of shooting).
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