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Everyone is entitled to a spot
B1 standing in the lane facing A's basket. Guarding no one. A1 grabs rebound at other end of court and goes full speed for,a layup and plows into back of B1. I have some very senior officials saying block on B1. Telling me that B1 did not have a LGP. I know this is a player control foul on A1. Can someone help me out with some fodder to convince these guys. I don't think LGP has anything to do with this play. Is 10-6-7 convincing enough?
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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his point is that if B1 has any limb extended, and contact is on that limb, there could be a blocking foul.
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I left my wallet in the car, can you get lunch and I'll getcha back next time? Thanks! |
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Not advocating or rejecting, just saying what I heard more than once over the summer.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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Truthfully, this one (running into the back of a stationary opponent) is just not practical. You'd have offensive players looking for defenders looking the other way just to run into them.
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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Why should a stationary player have to step out of a spot they legally obtained just to avoid a foul when an opponent chooses to run into them? There is no fundamental reason to make that a block. There is no problem that it is solving. It is merely someone trying to find (or create) a reason not to call a charge again.
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott "You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith |
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According to 4-23-2 and -3, we must have INITIAL legal guarding position (both feet touching the playing court AND the front of the guard's torso facing the opponent). Then, after INITIAL has been established, the guard, among other things, may "turn or duck to absorb the shock of imminent contact."
Note that after INITIAL lgp has been established, the guard may have both feet off the floor, move laterally or obliquely, raise hands vertically, etc. This brings in to play something I believe some in my association have been calling incorrectly for years: the slight tilt backward by the defender who has lgp before contact actually occurs. Isn't it clear by the above rules reference (especially 3c) that even if the defender who has INITIAL lgp starts moving backward early to absorb the imminent contact, AND contact does occur, he is still in lgp? "But Coach, he flopped!" |
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In the last, if the falling back is slight then call the charge (assuming the other conditions are met). But, sometimes the defender falls so much that either there isn't any contact or the defender already put himself at a disadvantage and the contact didn't add to it, so the contact now becomes incidental. (Not to say that "some in (your) association" aren't being too generous to the offense on some of the plays.) |
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LGP does not apply?
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4-40-2. It makes sense, then, that A1 would be expected to avoid contact as stated in 4-40-7. Your thoughts? |
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"Every player is entitled to a spot on the playing court provided such player gets there first without illegally contacting an opponent."
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"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott "You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith |
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I agree. But that statement/principle does not just apply to guarding. You can find it in other situations as well such as in the definition of rebounding where it can apply to any player, offense or defense. Just because B1 is entitled to a spot doesn't mean he is or has to be guarding someone, right?
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