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Old Thu Mar 22, 2012, 05:07pm
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Originally Posted by Scrapper1 View Post
Even if it did fall under the correctable error rule, they would've been ok in correcting it, because the clock never started after the ball became dead.
They did correct it and were right to do so. I was just wondering since I had never seen it done before AFTER there was an attempt to put the ball in play. Every other time I've seen it it gas been right away.
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Old Thu Mar 22, 2012, 07:13pm
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Originally Posted by paulsonj72 View Post
They did correct it and were right to do so.
Right. But my point was that the "statute of limitations" for fixing a correctable error doesn't even start until the clock is properly started. So even if had been a correctable error (as you apparently thought), they could've handed the ball to the thrower-in, had a technical foul, shot the free throws, taken another time-out, and STILL corrected the error.
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Old Thu Mar 22, 2012, 09:06pm
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Originally Posted by Scrapper1 View Post
Right. But my point was that the "statute of limitations" for fixing a correctable error doesn't even start until the clock is properly started. So even if had been a correctable error (as you apparently thought), they could've handed the ball to the thrower-in, had a technical foul, shot the free throws, taken another time-out, and STILL corrected the error.

I understand. I had just never seen an attempt to put the ball inbounds and then have a timeout and THEN have the time corrected. The T came after the time was put back on the clock. But I understand what you are saying. Because the ball was never inbounded the T could have been called and free throws shot and then the clock adjusted.(or anytime before the ball was inbounded)
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