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Old Tue Oct 11, 2011, 10:25pm
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I'd have a violation. The book states that "The ball shall be PASSED by the thrower..." (NFHS 9-2-2).

Definition of pass: "...movement of the ball caused by a player who throws, bats, or rolls the ball to another player."

Since a handoff is not, by rule, a pass, the provisions of a legal throw-in have not been met.

My .02
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Last edited by BBUMP99; Wed Oct 12, 2011 at 10:33am. Reason: Punctuation (because I'm a stickler like that)
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Old Tue Oct 11, 2011, 10:32pm
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It's most definitely a throw-in violation.
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Old Tue Oct 11, 2011, 11:29pm
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It is a throw-in violation, but the result is the same. You are going to put the ball where the violation took place.

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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 07:38am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BBUMP99 View Post
I'd have a violation. The book states that "The ball shall be PASSED by the thrower..." (NFHS 9-2-2).

Definition of pass: "...movement of the ball caused by a player who throws, bats, or rolls the ball to another player."

Since a handoff is not, by rule, a pass the provisions of a legal throw-in have not been met.

My .02
What if A1 just drops the ball inbounds on the court?
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 10:03am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
What if A1 just drops the ball inbounds on the court?
That would be 100% legal, provided that the floor becomes designated as "another player." If such designation does not take place, I'd have a violation.

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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 11:08am
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Originally Posted by BBUMP99 View Post
That would be 100% legal, provided that the floor becomes designated as "another player." If such designation does not take place, I'd have a violation.
For what? Consider the "drop" to be a pass.
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 11:14am
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
For what? Consider the "drop" to be a pass.
I took his post to be sarcastic...
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 11:44am
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I took his post to be sarcastic...
Perhaps I wasn't as charitable as usual. Channeling again.
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 02:24pm
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What if A1 just drops the ball inbounds on the court?
Does the inbounding player touch the ball first after it touches the court inbounds?
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 02:28pm
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Does the inbounding player touch the ball first after it touches the court inbounds?
nope
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 02:28pm
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Does the inbounding player touch the ball first after it touches the court inbounds?
I do believe BNR wasn't being serious with his question and was asking in jest.
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Old Wed Oct 12, 2011, 03:36pm
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Quote:
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What if A1 just drops the ball inbounds on the court?
Quote:
Originally Posted by BBUMP99 View Post
That would be 100% legal, provided that the floor becomes designated as "another player." If such designation does not take place, I'd have a violation.

No need for the floor to become a "player". It is just a bonce pass that is not yet complete....it becomes so once another player touches the ball. Until that occurs (or some other infraction occurs), the throwin is still in progress.
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