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Never seen this before !
I saw an intentional striking of the ball with a foot and did NOT call a violation. Was I correct? Offensive player with the ball, bends over, holds the ball below his knees and begins a faking motion (side to side) prior to beginning a dribble. The defender kicks at the ball, but does not dislodge it. (NO ADVANTAGE) It had no affect on the offensive player, who then head-faked and went around the defender to score a lay-up. Very unusual. My decision was a no-call. Your opinions please.
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Barry "the ref" Alman |
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