[bossref]

Never seen this before !
I saw an intentional striking of the ball
with a foot and did NOT call a violation.
Was I correct?

Offensive player with the ball, bends over,
holds the ball below his knees and begins
a faking motion (side to side) prior to
beginning a dribble.
The defender kicks at the ball, but does not
dislodge it. (NO ADVANTAGE) It had no affect on the
offensive player, who then head-faked and went around the defender to score a lay-up.

Very unusual.
My decision was a no-call.

Your opinions please.