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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 12:26pm
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Tref: so you are saying the shot would not have counted since the ball was not out of his hand? "provided time did not expire before the ball was in flight"

I accept that can be the correct call, I just thought it was odd that he would get free throws but no way for the shot to count even if it went in. symantics - i guess

Rocky: I see your point about many times the shot not getting released, etc but my point was that an attempt that was awarded freethrows did not have a way of counting if it went in (without any other violations - thanks Snak)

Mbyron: your point is not very satisfying even though it makes complete sense
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 12:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mi_ball View Post
Tref: so you are saying the shot would not have counted since the ball was not out of his hand? "provided time did not expire before the ball was in flight"

I accept that can be the correct call, I just thought it was odd that he would get free throws but no way for the shot to count even if it went in. symantics - i guess

Rocky: I see your point about many times the shot not getting released, etc but my point was that an attempt that was awarded freethrows did not have a way of counting if it went in (without any other violations - thanks Snak)

Mbyron: your point is not very satisfying even though it makes complete sense
You are right, it's odd. It's odd because you likely never actually see it happen when the shot goes in. I wouldn't be surprised if most officials never have to call it, and that a certain percentage of those who did have the play might get it wrong.

Kinda like the 10 second free throw violation or a T for flopping; it might be a once-in-a-career call if at all.
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 12:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mi_ball View Post
Tref: so you are saying the shot would not have counted since the ball was not out of his hand? "provided time did not expire before the ball was in flight"

I accept that can be the correct call, I just thought it was odd that he would get free throws but no way for the shot to count even if it went in. symantics - i guess

Rocky: I see your point about many times the shot not getting released, etc but my point was that an attempt that was awarded freethrows did not have a way of counting if it went in (without any other violations - thanks Snak)

Mbyron: your point is not very satisfying even though it makes complete sense
Was he fouled in the act of shooting? Yes.

Did he get the shot off? No.

So, it's 2 (or 3) FTs. The same as any other time during the game when those two questions are answered in that way.
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:01pm
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:14pm
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Have we established whether Team B was in the bonus/double bonus? That could be a reason why free throws were awarded, shooting foul or not.
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:15pm
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It better not be.

I think mi_ball was wondering if it should have been called a foul at all since it wasn't released before the horn.
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:16pm
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If shot happens after the buzzer but no one is there to see it, did it actually happen?

Apparently - yes since he is shooting free throws due to a foul in the act of shooting. I know "act" is the key word... The start of the motion dictates the ability of the foul call but the ball must leave the hand for the shot to be considered capable of scoring. It's still a weird ruling even if it makes complete sense

Did I summarize that right?
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:21pm
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No bonus. Free throws due to "shooting" foul. Boy does that have a new meaning to me now
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 01:23pm
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Originally Posted by mi_ball View Post
Did I summarize that right?
For someone who is not an official, I'd buy that summary!
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Old Tue Apr 26, 2011, 04:44pm
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If there was no foul, then there is a higher chance that the shot would have been released before the buzzer, so therefore fouls shots must be awarded.
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Old Wed Apr 27, 2011, 05:19pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mi_ball View Post
If shot happens after the buzzer but no one is there to see it, did it actually happen?

Apparently - yes since he is shooting free throws due to a foul in the act of shooting. I know "act" is the key word... The start of the motion dictates the ability of the foul call but the ball must leave the hand for the shot to be considered capable of scoring. It's still a weird ruling even if it makes complete sense

Did I summarize that right?
And the foul must occur before the buzzer goes off. If the habitual throwing motion starts, horn then foul then you have nothing.
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