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Tref: so you are saying the shot would not have counted since the ball was not out of his hand? "provided time did not expire before the ball was in flight"
I accept that can be the correct call, I just thought it was odd that he would get free throws but no way for the shot to count even if it went in. symantics - i guess Rocky: I see your point about many times the shot not getting released, etc but my point was that an attempt that was awarded freethrows did not have a way of counting if it went in (without any other violations - thanks Snak) Mbyron: your point is not very satisfying even though it makes complete sense
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Did he get the shot off? No. So, it's 2 (or 3) FTs. The same as any other time during the game when those two questions are answered in that way. |
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If shot happens after the buzzer but no one is there to see it, did it actually happen?
Apparently - yes since he is shooting free throws due to a foul in the act of shooting. I know "act" is the key word... The start of the motion dictates the ability of the foul call but the ball must leave the hand for the shot to be considered capable of scoring. It's still a weird ruling even if it makes complete sense ![]() Did I summarize that right? |
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If there was no foul, then there is a higher chance that the shot would have been released before the buzzer, so therefore fouls shots must be awarded.
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