2011 Tournament Discussion Redux

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Jburt

Did Texas have any TO remaining?

Not relevant to the discussion at hand, really. If they didn't, the proper call would have been to grant the TO and charge the TF (assuming it was requested in time) rather than ignore it and charge the 5 second violation.

[Jburt]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Not relevant to the discussion at hand, really. If they didn't, the proper call would have been to grant the TO and charge the TF (assuming it was requested in time) rather than ignore it and charge the 5 second violation.

I disagree that it is not relevant. It could be argued, that if Texas did not have a TO remaining and the request came simultaneous, or close to, the 5 second violation, that he called the violation rather than issue a TF for an excessive TO.
Right or wrong, it could be a possibility, which is why I asked whether they had a TO or not.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Jburt

I disagree that it is not relevant. It could be argued, that if Texas did not have a TO remaining and the request came simultaneous, or close to, the 5 second violation, that he called the violation rather than issue a TF for an excessive TO.
Right or wrong, it could be a possibility, which is why I asked whether they had a TO or not.

Fair enough, I didn't realize you were suggesting the official simply lacked the stones to make the right call.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jburt

I disagree that it is not relevant. It could be argued, that if Texas did not have a TO remaining and the request came simultaneous, or close to, the 5 second violation, that he called the violation rather than issue a TF for an excessive TO.
Right or wrong, it could be a possibility, which is why I asked whether they had a TO or not.

It is certainly debatable whether the TO request was made in time to beat the 5 second count in this play. Whether or not the team had a TO should not play any part in that debate.