Backcourt

[rbruno]

Guys

A-1 is in her frontcourt control and looses the ball into the backcourt. As soon as a member of Team A touches in the backcourt I blow the whistle for a backcourt violation.
My partner alerts me that he is sure the ball was tipped by a member of Team B.
We decide that my whistle is inadvertant and give the ball back to Team A at the point of the touching.
Is this correct? NFHS rules
Not sure what the point of interruption is?
Should we have gone to the arrow because Team A did not have control as I blew the whistle for the violation?

[jTheUmp]

1) did A have team control in A's frontcourt?
2) Was A the last to touch the ball in the frontcourt?
3) Was A the first to touch the ball in the backcourt?

If the answer to all three is "yes", then you have a backcourt violation on this play. If the answer to any of these three is "no", then you have no backcourt violation.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by jTheUmp

1) did A have team control in A's frontcourt?
2) Was A the last to touch the ball in the frontcourt?
3) Was A the first to touch the ball in the backcourt?

If the answer to all three is "yes", then you have a backcourt violation on this play. If the answer to any of these three is "no", then you have no backcourt violation.

All three of your points are close, but not quite accurate.

[jTheUmp]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

All three of your points are close, but not quite accurate.

What did I miss?

BadNewsRef, I may have miss-read the OP, read it in terms of "was backcourt call correct?", not "did we do the right thing after the call was overturned?".

Reading it that way, then you and Jurrassic Referee are correct.

[Adam]

#1 is technically right, although it could lead one to believe the team must have a player with control in the FC. We usually break it down into two parts.

1. Team control established.
2. Ball gains FC status.

Your #s 3 and 4 have the same error, in that the ball does not have to be touched "in" the respective courts to qualify.

A team need never touch the ball in the FC to have a violation. Same with the BC.

We tend to word them:

3. The last to touch the ball before it goes into the BC.
4. The first to touch the ball after it went into the BC.

This wording includes some violations that your wording would leave out.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

#1 is technically right, although it could lead one to believe the team must have a player with control in the FC. We usually break it down into two parts.

1. Team control established.
2. Ball gains FC status.

Your #s 3 and 4 have the same error, in that the ball does not have to be touched "in" the respective courts to qualify.

A team need never touch the ball in the FC to have a violation. Same with the BC.

We tend to word them:

3. The last to touch the ball before it goes into the BC.
4. The first to touch the ball after it went into the BC.

This wording includes some violations that your wording would leave out.

You're so gentle with the tyros.

[jTheUmp]

Good points, thanks for the clarification.

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

A team need never touch the ball in the FC to have a violation. Same with the BC.

I'm trying to imagine a scenario where we could have a violation without Team A touching the ball in the frontcourt at some point, but my mind is coming up empty. Can you give me an example?

[NoFussRef]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

#1 is technically right, although it could lead one to believe the team must have a player with control in the FC. We usually break it down into two parts.

1. Team control established.
2. Ball gains FC status.

Your #s 3 and 4 have the same error, in that the ball does not have to be touched "in" the respective courts to qualify.

A team need never touch the ball in the FC to have a violation. Same with the BC.

We tend to word them:

3. The last to touch the ball before it goes into the BC.
4. The first to touch the ball after it went into the BC.

This wording includes some violations that your wording would leave out.

When are you blowing this dead.

Team establishes FC status, they are the last to touch the ball before it bounces in BC. Defender chasing after this ball, do you blow it dead when the ball reaches BC, or do you allow defender to pick it up and drive?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by jTheUmp

1) did A have team control in A's frontcourt?
2) Was A the last to touch the ball in the frontcourt?
3) Was A the first to touch the ball in the backcourt?

If the answer to all three is "yes", then you have a backcourt violation on this play. If the answer to any of these three is "no", then you have no backcourt violation.

He's not asking that. He didn't see a tip but his partner did. His main question was since there was no player control when he blew his whistle should Team A have retained possession due to the inadvertent whistle. The answer is YES because Team A never lost team control.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by rbruno

Guys

A-1 is in her frontcourt control and looses the ball into the backcourt. As soon as a member of Team A touches in the backcourt I blow the whistle for a backcourt violation.
My partner alerts me that he is sure the ball was tipped by a member of Team B.
We decide that my whistle is inadvertant and give the ball back to Team A at the point of the touching.
1) Is this correct? NFHS rules
2) Not sure what the point of interruption is?
3) Should we have gone to the arrow because Team A did not have control as I blew the whistle for the violation?

1) Yes
2)the POI is where the ball was in the backcourt when you blew the inadvertant whistle.
3) No arrow because team control was never lost by team A. Team control is the deciding factor, not player control.