Legal dribble or not?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

Is hitting the foot the same as hitting the floor? In this case, I think it is. If not, the ball hasn't hit the floor, so the dribble hasn't started yet. Either way, no violation.

I agree it's not a violation, but I think it's because the ball is never batted "in the air."

Change the play, A1, during his dribble, bats the ball in the air over B1's head. He attempts to let it hit the floor legally before continuing the dribble, but his foot gets in the way. It hits his foot and bounces up, then he bats the ball to the floor and continues on his way.

I've got a violatin here, he batted it in the air and hit it again with his hand prior to the ball hitting the floor.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by just another ref

If not, the ball hasn't hit the floor, so the dribble hasn't started yet. Either way, no violation.

I deem that in this play the ball was accidentally and unintentionally fumbled, that the "first dribble" never occurred because the ball never hit the floor, and that it's legal if the player decided to start a new dribble.

Check?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

I deem that in this play the ball was accidentally and unintentionally fumbled, that the "first dribble" never occurred because the ball never hit the floor, and that it's legal if the player decided to start a new dribble.

Check?

It was not a fumble. The ball was released to start a dribble. This was a given in the OP.

Checkmate

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by just another ref

It was not a fumble. The ball was released to start a dribble. This was a given in the OP. Checkmate

Good point, but I've already deemed this. Too late.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

A1 receives a pass and releases the ball to start a dribble. The ball hits the top of his foot, never touching the floor, and bounces straight up. A1 then bats the ball to the floor.

Violation for touching the ball twice during the same dribble, as per the RULING of 4.15.4SitD(a)-"Violation because the ball was touched twice by A1's hand(s) during a dribble before it touched the floor."

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Violation for touching the ball twice during the same dribble, as per the RULING of 4.15.4SitD(a)-"Violation because the ball was touched twice by A1's hand(s) during a dribble before it touched the floor."

So if a player is holding the ball, tosses it from one hand to the other, then pushes it to the floor, is that a violation?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

So if a player is holding the ball, tosses it from one hand to the other, then pushes it to the floor, is that a violation?

No, because the dribble doesn't start until he pushes it to the floor. This call hinges completely on whether A1 has to bat the ball "into the air" in order to be liable for this violation.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

No, because the dribble doesn't start until he pushes it to the floor.

That was my point above.

And even if it is during the dribble, I see the ball hitting a foot the same as hitting the floor. What if it's an opponent's foot? It hits and comes straight back up to the dribbler's hand, (very unlikely I know, but no more unlikely than off his own foot) is this a violation?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

That was my point above.

And even if it is during the dribble, I see the ball hitting a foot the same as hitting the floor. What if it's an opponent's foot? It hits and comes straight back up to the dribbler's hand, (very unlikely I know, but no more unlikely than off his own foot) is this a violation?

Opponents foot, I'd consider that an interrupted dribble that touches an opponent. New dribble.

[BillyMac]

Anything that I deemed, I now undeem.

I don't have another move because I'm stuck on the floor. Literally. The "pushes the ball to the floor" part of the definition is confusing me.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Violation for touching the ball twice during the same dribble, as per the RULING of 4.15.4SitD(a)-"Violation because the ball was touched twice by A1's hand(s) during a dribble before it touched the floor."

I would agree if A1 had already batted the ball to floor at least once. But in the OP I see it no different than standing in place and tossing the ball to himself before dribbling.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I would agree if A1 had already batted the ball to floor at least once. But in the OP I see it no different than standing in place and tossing the ball to himself before dribbling.

Which means that he can legally start a new dribble. Can I deem this now?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Which means that he can legally start a new dribble. Can I deem this now?

Not if he picks his pivot foot up in the process.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Not if he picks his pivot foot up in the process.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I would agree if A1 had already batted the ball to floor at least once. But in the OP I see it no different than standing in place and tossing the ball to himself before dribbling.

Scrapper1 told us in the OP that A1 released the ball to start a dribble. Are you calling Scrappy a liar? Is there any reason you wouldn't believe Scrappy?

Or are you a resident of JARlandia also?