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Can you cite a rule that states you can have a personal foul without having any illegal contact with an opponent when the ball is live a la 4-19-1? Can you cite a rule or interp that states that contact with the ball is the same as contact with the body? And we already have a rule that states that contact with a thrown ball is a technical foul. Can you cite a rule or interp that states that rule doesn't apply to a ball being held by a player? Still waiting for rules instead of opinions...... If A1 pushes off with the ball and the only contact is with the ball and you feel an unfair advantage was gained, by rule you have an unsporting non-contact foul by B1 as per rule 4-19-5(b). At no time did A1 make any physical contact with any of his body parts on B1. Edited to say: JAR, go back and read my edited post #36 above and answer those questions re: hand part of the ball. Last edited by Jurassic Referee; Sun Jan 23, 2011 at 11:33am. |
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Clearly, the play at hand involves none of these. Quote:
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove Last edited by just another ref; Sun Jan 23, 2011 at 11:49am. |
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2)Pushing a player with the ball to gain an unfair advantage is unfair, unethical, dishonorable and not in accordance with the spirit of fair play. And that's why I'd call it a "T". Clearly the play at hand involves all of those. Well, that and the fact that the rules won't let me call it a personal foul because there was no actual physical contact by the fouling player. |
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Holding the ball, giving a subtle push to the torso. Throwing the ball, striking the opponent in the face. Yep, exact same thing. Great comparison.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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