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Old Wed Jan 05, 2011, 03:14pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by stosh View Post
A1 shoots a 3-point attempt and while A1 is airborn, B1 pushes A2 into A1 causing A1 to fall to the floor. I called a foul on B1 for the push on A2 and awarded the ball OOB nearest the spot of the foul. Coach A wanted to know why it wasn't a shooting foul since the foul obviously affected his shooter. I didn't have an answer, other than that the contact by B1 was on A2 and not on A1, but I really see the coaches point. Any advice?
[QUOTE=Corndog89;712233]Did B1 push A2 intentionally to disrupt the shot? If so, call it an intentional foul.{/QUOTE]

Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
No, don't. As described, that play meets neither criterion for an intentional foul.
The OP doesn't necessarily address the intent of B1, but I agree there was no intent as described. However, what if B1 did push A2 with the clear intent to knock him into A1 to disrupt A1's shot? Would that not fit the criterion?

My intent was not to tell Stosh what to do, but to ask him if there was intent, thereby presenting another possible option. I should have more precisely stated "If so, you could call it an intentional foul."
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