The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Basketball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jan 05, 2011, 07:05pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: NE Ohio
Posts: 7,620
Quote:
Originally Posted by Corndog89 View Post
The OP doesn't necessarily address the intent of B1, but I agree there was no intent as described. However, what if B1 did push A2 with the clear intent to knock him into A1 to disrupt A1's shot? Would that not fit the criterion?
There are 2 ways for a foul to be an intentional foul, and the intent -- clear or otherwise -- of the fouler is not part of either one.
__________________
Cheers,
mb
Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 06, 2011, 01:20am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 1999
Location: In the offseason.
Posts: 12,263
Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
There are 2 ways for a foul to be an intentional foul, and the intent -- clear or otherwise -- of the fouler is not part of either one.
Disagree. Intent is clearly part of one of the two options...
"specifically DESIGNED to stop or keep the clock from running" (emphasis mine)
Something that is "designed" has intent.
__________________
Owner/Developer of RefTown.com
Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association
Reply With Quote
  #3 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 06, 2011, 10:34am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: NE Ohio
Posts: 7,620
Quote:
Originally Posted by Camron Rust View Post
Disagree. Intent is clearly part of one of the two options...
"specifically DESIGNED to stop or keep the clock from running" (emphasis mine)
Something that is "designed" has intent.
You misunderstand: many officials seem to think that an intentional foul should be called where the foul is "obviously intentional," as opposed to accidental. That's wrong, as you know, and that's what I'm trying to correct for the OP.

You've emphasized the wrong part of the definition above: it's not the mere fact of a design, but the content of it that makes the foul an INT. That is to say, we call an INT not just because the player intended to foul, but because of WHY he intended to foul.

I'm claiming that intent is not sufficient to call an intentional foul; you're arguing that (for one kind of INT) it's necessary. I don't deny that, though my earlier comment that intent is not "part" of intentional fouls is admittedly misleading.
__________________
Cheers,
mb
Reply With Quote
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 06, 2011, 02:38pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Posts: 109
For whatever it's worth, I did not see any intent to direct A2 into A1 on the part of B1. B1 was simply pushing through a screen (legally) set by A2 in an attempt to defend A1's shot, but in doing so, forced A2 into airborn shooter
A1, causing A1 to fall to the floor. The contact, IMO ,was not an Intentional Foul by definition.
Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On


Similar Threads
Thread Thread Starter Forum Replies Last Post
The case against two man biggravy Basketball 25 Wed Jan 13, 2010 10:32am
In case you haven't seen this... IDref Soccer 10 Sat Jul 21, 2007 02:30pm
Case 6.3.2 rwest Basketball 8 Thu Oct 28, 2004 04:04pm
Just in case vincebradford'sboy71 Basketball 26 Wed Jan 21, 2004 12:06am
case 8.3.1 A biglaz Baseball 3 Thu Mar 27, 2003 01:51pm


All times are GMT -5. The time now is 12:12am.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1