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Old Sun Dec 12, 2010, 01:46am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
The debate in this thread is not whether the contact was advantageous. It was. That is a given.

To paraphrase and expand the OP: As A1 goes up to shoot, B1 grabs his arm with such force that he is spun sideways. A1 is still able to muscle the ball up and into the basket. Since the shot went in, should the contact be ignored?

NO WAY
Where does the OP state anything like the scenario you just described? If it was as obvious as above then of course you have a foul regardless. But I don't sense that is the kind of play he is talking about.

Maybe he mispoke when he said "advantageous." Because what I am talking about, and I assume the OP and JRutledge are too, is situations where there is marginal contact and you take into account whether or not the ball went in to decide if it was indeed contact that was advantageous.
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Old Sun Dec 12, 2010, 08:37am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by VaTerp View Post
Maybe he mispoke when he said "advantageous." Because what I am talking about, and I assume the OP and JRutledge are too, is situations where there is marginal contact and you take into account whether or not the ball went in to decide if it was indeed contact that was advantageous.
Our responses were based on the assumption that bainsey actually meant what he said and didn't "mispoke". Bainsey...the OP... didn't mention "marginal contact" in any way. You and Jeff want to inject that into the situation. Well, any discussion of "marginal contact" is completely irrelevant because bainsey has already told us the contact was illegal because it was "advantageous".

If you want to discuss whether marginal contact on a shot should be a foul or not, you need to start a brand new thread. That particular discussion has got dickity-boo to do with this thread. It's 2 completely different and disparate discussions.

As I said, reading is fundamental. And comprehension is also necessary.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 12, 2010, 02:09pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by VaTerp View Post
Where does the OP state anything like the scenario you just described? If it was as obvious as above then of course you have a foul regardless. But I don't sense that is the kind of play he is talking about.

Maybe he mispoke when he said "advantageous." Because what I am talking about, and I assume the OP and JRutledge are too, is situations where there is marginal contact and you take into account whether or not the ball went in to decide if it was indeed contact that was advantageous.
I was only addressing the question he was asking, not the play. The play in this thread is really was in my opinion and example of what we are ultimately talking about. We are talking about whether the shot going in should matter if we call a foul or rule the contact advantageous to the defender.

Not sure how that was confusing. I never quoted the guy, just answered his last question. Oh well.

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