Alternating Possession Question NFHS

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by CDurham

Yes. In my DI scrimmage last Saturday we had the Trail go straight into the player control foul and going the other way. The Lead on the other hand has a foul but doesnt give his signal, but he has a block (I know this is different than both giving signals). The Lead gets with the Trail and they decide to with the Trails call. The Lead was the referee and seemed like he wanted to go with his foul, but thought otherwise and since the Trail gave his signal we went with his.

Why?

[CDurham]

Originally Posted by just another ref

Why?

Well if you have 2 giving signals then everyone has seen it and you have no choice to go with the Double. But if only 1 has given their signal then you have a chance to just penalize theirs if the other official agress, rather than going with the Double in the instance of both giving their signal.

I meant to say that this situation is different than both officials giving their preliminary signals, because only 1 gave theirs in my scrimmage.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by CDurham

Well if you have 2 giving signals then everyone has seen it and you have no choice to go with the Double. But if only 1 has given their signal then you have a chance to just penalize theirs if the other official agress, rather than going with the Double in the instance of both giving their signal.

And all this is based on what?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

And all this is based on what?

You know very well what he's basing it on; and you're the only one who disagrees on the meaning.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

You know very well what he's basing it on; and you're the only one who disagrees on the meaning.

New guy in the discussion, as far as I know. He says he knows it's different if both give preliminary signals. I want to know how he knows this, since it's not written anywhere. He also refers to the officials agreeing on the one call if only one prelim is given. This implies that they had a discussion. (Is this true?) I thought the consensus here was that discussion was not allowed.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by just another ref

New guy in the discussion, as far as I know. He says he knows it's different if both give preliminary signals. I want to know how he knows this, since it's not written anywhere. He also refers to the officials agreeing on the one call if only one prelim is given. This implies that they had a discussion. (Is this true?) I thought the consensus here was that discussion was not allowed.

Discussion is allowed, even required, but the result is pre-ordained by the case play.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Discussion is allowed, even required, but the result is pre-ordained by the case play.

How many preliminary signals were given in the case play?