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Old Thu Mar 11, 2010, 11:42am
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Join Date: May 2005
Posts: 12
Quote:
Originally Posted by tjones1 View Post
Yes, I think I do have a violation in the OP Situation A. In my opinion, the ball would have came to "rest" when change in direction occurred.

My point was that you stated you couldn't have a backcourt violation because no one ever possessed the ball which isn't true.
If the ball comes to "rest", that means the player now has possession of the ball. (and both feet in the front court = violation when passed to player in backcourt)
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