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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 12:18am
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Not all.

Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
IT works, in theory, in all situations. Intial player control and team control and ability to grant a time out all happen at the same time.

I agree that in practice, it would be difficult to request and be granted a TO in this brief instance, but it has happened.
So by the definition that if you can call a time out there is team control, then there is no team control when team B requests a timeout but team A has a live ball inbounds. Team B can't call a timeout. I know no one is suggesting this. My only point is I don't like using when a timeout can be taken to define team control. Plus it's not needed. If you deem the player had control of the ball, then there is team control, no matter how much time transpired.

As to the OP, if I see a controlled pass by a player in the air, I'm going to interpret this as control. In order for a player to make a pass like this the ball had to come to rest in his hand, thereby, meeting the definition of control. He doesn't have to have two hands on the ball for control to be established.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 12:33am
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Say What ???

Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
If I see a controlled pass by a player in the air, I'm going to interpret this as control. In order for a player to make a pass like this the ball had to come to rest in his hand, thereby, meeting the definition of control. He doesn't have to have two hands on the ball for control to be established.
What? So if a long pass from A1 to A2 is in the air, halfway between A1 and A2, and someone from Team A requests a timeout, you, as an official will grant the request? So it wouldn't matter to you if a split second after the officials whistle to grant the timeout, B1 stole the pass was about to drive in for an uncontested layup. It sure would matter to the Team B coach.

Wow. If there ever was a job for the Mythbusters, this is certainly the job:

The head coach may request and be granted a timeout if his or her player is holding or dribbling the ball, or during a dead ball period.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 12:46am
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Calm Down Billy Mac and re-read what I said

Quote:
Originally Posted by BillyMac View Post
What? So if a long pass from A1 to A2 is in the air, halfway between A1 and A2, and someone from Team A requests a timeout, you, as an official will grant the request? So it wouldn't matter to you if a split second after the officials whistle to grant the timeout, B1 stole the pass was about to drive in for an uncontested layup. It sure would matter to the Team B coach.

Wow. If there ever was a job for the Mythbusters, this is certainly the job:

The head coach may request and be granted a timeout if his or her player is holding or dribbling the ball, or during a dead ball period.
I said that if there is a controlled pass, then team control exists. I never said I'd grant a timeout after the pass. Team control and when a timeout can be granted are two separate issues. They are related, but still separate. All I said was that there is team control if I see a controlled pass. No where in what you quoted did I say I'd grant a time out.
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Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 01:13am
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And another thing

Quote:
Originally Posted by BillyMac View Post
What? So if a long pass from A1 to A2 is in the air, halfway between A1 and A2, and someone from Team A requests a timeout, you, as an official will grant the request? So it wouldn't matter to you if a split second after the officials whistle to grant the timeout, B1 stole the pass was about to drive in for an uncontested layup. It sure would matter to the Team B coach.

Wow. If there ever was a job for the Mythbusters, this is certainly the job:

The head coach may request and be granted a timeout if his or her player is holding or dribbling the ball, or during a dead ball period.
This just furthers my argument that we should not determine that team control exists when we would grant a timeout. Team control does exist on a pass, but we won't grant a timeout during a pass. So by some of the posters on this thread team control doesn't exist on a pass. Not if we use their principle of if you would grant a timeout then team control exists. Because if one is true then the corrollary is also true. Namely, that if you wouldn't grant a time out then team control doesn't exist. And this is blatantly not true.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 01:54am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
This just furthers my argument that we should not determine that team control exists when we would grant a timeout. Team control does exist on a pass, but we won't grant a timeout during a pass. So by some of the posters on this thread team control doesn't exist on a pass. Not if we use their principle of if you would grant a timeout then team control exists. Because if one is true then the corrollary is also true. Namely, that if you wouldn't grant a time out then team control doesn't exist. And this is blatantly not true.
In order for a time out to be called, PLAYER control must exist -- UNLESS the ball is at the disposal of the team requesting the time out.
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Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 08:29am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef View Post
In order for a time out to be called, PLAYER control must exist -- UNLESS the ball is at the disposal of the team requesting the time out.
Amen.

If a team has player control, they also have team control, by rule. But a team can have team control but not have player control, also by rule. So the simplest way to state what is necessary for an official to grant a time-out request is exactly what CMHCoachNRef said above but add to it "or the ball is dead" to cover all situations.

From the original post, the call is a straight judgment call. If you judged that the ball came to rest in the hand of the player while tipping the ball, it's a backcourt violation because player control and thus team control was established in the frontcourt. If you judge that the ball didn't come to rest and therefore player/team control was never established in the front court, then it's play on. And the only person that can make the judgment is the official that is responsible for making the call. It's always a HTBT call.
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Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 12:09pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
This just furthers my argument that we should not determine that team control exists when we would grant a timeout. Team control does exist on a pass, but we won't grant a timeout during a pass. So by some of the posters on this thread team control doesn't exist on a pass. Not if we use their principle of if you would grant a timeout then team control exists. Because if one is true then the corrollary is also true. Namely, that if you wouldn't grant a time out then team control doesn't exist. And this is blatantly not true.
Nobody said crap about determining team control with that, and no one tied team control to a timeout. The question is whether player control ever existed. Player control is a requirement to establish team control, sure, but team control itself is irrelevant for a timeout.

As Billy pointed out, team control continues until the ball becomes dead, a shot is released, or the other team gains player control.

Let me spell this out again.

In order to have a BC violation in the OP, PLAYER control has to have existed with the pass rather than just a tip, because player control estalblishes team control. Everytime. Team control is really all that's required for a BC violation, but team control can never exist until player control has existed.

Player control is the same thing that's required for a TO (except throwins, free throws and dead balls), so the principal is the same. Exactly the same.

Whether you'd grant a TO if a coach was requesting it while A1 briefly controlled it is, really, a topic for another thread. My point is, the rule is the same for both, so the theory works. Every time.
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Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 01:58pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
Whether you'd grant a TO if a coach was requesting it while A1 briefly controlled it is, really, a topic for another thread. My point is, the rule is the same for both, so the theory works. Every time.
Agreed.

Some people have trouble determining when PC exists. Many of these people do not have trouble determining whether a TO would be granted. Once it's pointed out that the criteria are the same, the confusion on the initial question goes away. If that logic doesn't work for you, well, it doesn't work for you. :shrug: That doesn't make it a bad teaching method (for others).
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 06:04pm
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Same sort of situation: A1 shoots. Ball hits rim and bounces long towards the corner. A2 chases it down, jumps in the air while going out of bounds and grabs ball with two hands and throws back over his head (A2 was looking in opposite direction). Basketball goes into the BC where A3 is the first to touch?

What do you call? BC because the throw established team control? Or was it not team control?
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 06:17pm
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Seems Clearer Now

Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo View Post
. . . grabs ball with two hands . . .
This clearly fulfills the definition of player control ("holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds"). Thus, clear backcourt violation.

The only difference between this and the situation which brought up the question was that in that situation the player "pushed the ball with one hand" into the backcourt, i.e., more than a tap. It's becoming more clear that for the push to have taken place, albeit with one hand, player control had to have occurred. Thus, backcourt violation as well.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 06:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Ringo View Post
Same sort of situation: A1 shoots. Ball hits rim and bounces long towards the corner. A2 chases it down, jumps in the air while going out of bounds and grabs ball with two hands and throws back over his head (A2 was looking in opposite direction). Basketball goes into the BC where A3 is the first to touch?

What do you call? BC because the throw established team control? Or was it not team control?
Anytime player control is established, team control comes with it. More likely than not, I'm calling this a BC violation.
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Old Sat Dec 26, 2009, 07:32am
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Still Confused By Theme Of Post ???

Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
If I see a controlled pass by a player in the air, I'm going to interpret this as control. In order for a player to make a pass like this the ball had to come to rest in his hand, thereby, meeting the definition of control. He doesn't have to have two hands on the ball for control to be established.
I'm still not sure what you're aiming at here. What you say is true, but I'm not sure why you're saying it, because what is being said can be misconstrued by those not well versed in basketball rules.

During an an "uncontrolled" pass, a fumble, a muff, a pass tipped by the defense, a ball dribbled off a foot, an interrupted dribble, etc., there is still team control until the ball is in flight during a try or tap for goal, an opponent secures control, or the ball becomes dead.
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