Backcourt or not?!?

[SamIAm]

After A1 lands with possession, the throw-in exemption is over (I think).
I see A1 with one foot in BC with other foot on the division line and touching FC.
Wouldn't that give A1 FC status? Therefore, the movement to both feet in the BC results in a BC violation?
(Note the ?'s. Help me if necessary).

[tjones1]

Originally Posted by IchiRef

Would it be a violation If his foot was not only on the line, but over the line (half in FC, half in BC), then subsequently dribbled into the BC?

Nope. Still has BC status. Remember the division line is in the BC. If the player is straddling the division line they still have BC status.

Originally Posted by SamIAm

After A1 lands with possession, the throw-in exemption is over (I think). Yes, sort of. The throw-in ends when the ball was legally touched (i.e. when he caught the ball). However, there's an exception since it was a throw-in that allows the player to land without penalty.
I see A1 with one foot in BC with other foot on the line and touching FC.
Wouldn't that give A1 FC status? Therefore, the movement to both feet in the BC results in a BC violation? Nope, still has BC status since the player has one foot in the BC.
(Note the ?'s. Help me if necessary).

My answers in red.

[IchiRef]

thanks, that makes sense. When you think about it separate from the Throw-in (because it ended) that no call is easy.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by IchiRef

Would it be a violation If his foot was not only on the line, but over the line (half in FC, half in BC), then subsequently dribbled into the BC?

Originally Posted by SamIAm

After A1 lands with possession, the throw-in exemption is over (I think).
I see A1 with one foot in BC with other foot on the division line and touching FC.
Wouldn't that give A1 FC status? Therefore, the movement to both feet in the BC results in a BC violation?
(Note the ?'s. Help me if necessary).

If a player is touching both the BC and the FC, the player is in the BC.

[zm1283]

Originally Posted by SamIAm

After A1 lands with possession, the throw-in exemption is over (I think).
I see A1 with one foot in BC with other foot on the division line and touching FC.
Wouldn't that give A1 FC status? Therefore, the movement to both feet in the BC results in a BC violation?
(Note the ?'s. Help me if necessary).

No. The division line is in the BC, so when he has one foot in the FC and one in the BC, he has BC status. He can then go back into the BC without violating.

Now, if he picks his BC foot up and pivots and puts it back down in the BC, it would be a violation.