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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 09:41am
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NBA Somewhat related

As a Celtics fan, I get a bang out of Kevin Garnett never letting the opponent score on a practice shot after a whistle causes the play to become dead. He always 'goaltends' the practice shot.
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 10:16am
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Originally Posted by hoopguy View Post
As a Celtics fan, I get a bang out of Kevin Garnett never letting the opponent score on a practice shot after a whistle causes the play to become dead. He always 'goaltends' the practice shot.
This is an interesting situation in the "lower" levels. Who thinks this is okay to do? I'm thinking that this needs to be addressed if it is happening in a high school or college game (emulating their idols). Saying something along the lines of "When you are playing for the Boston Celtics then this will be legal"
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 10:28am
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Originally Posted by All_Heart View Post
This is an interesting situation in the "lower" levels. Who thinks this is okay to do?
I do, mainly because I know of no rule prohibiting it.

I'd be after the shooter instead, for not passing the ball directly to an official in accordance with 10-3-5b.
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 01:02pm
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Usually it is a player that is fouled right before he/she is in the act of shooting but the officials whistle is a tad slow so they actually do start their motion and continue and shoot.
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 04:15pm
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Originally Posted by All_Heart View Post
Usually it is a player that is fouled right before he/she is in the act of shooting but the officials whistle is a tad slow so they actually do start their motion and continue and shoot.
Then why penalize a different (or even the same player) for playing through the whistle when they think the shot may or may not count?

If the foul is that close to being a shooting foul, don't penalize them for this.

If the foul is so much before the shooting motion that everyone knows it's just a "practice shot," then that's what the player gets for shooting a dead ball. He can take his practice shots after the game is over.
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 06:02pm
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Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
I do, mainly because I know of no rule prohibiting it.

I'd be after the shooter instead, for not passing the ball directly to an official in accordance with 10-3-5b.
Yep. My standard admonishment is, "Hey, practice on your own time."
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 08:59pm
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The basket interference by B2 causes the ball to become dead immediately. The violation is penalized by awarding the two points. The player-control foul on A1 is also charged.
If the ball is dead, and the contact is not intentional or flagrant, how can the foul be committed?
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Old Wed Nov 04, 2009, 10:38pm
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Originally Posted by Texas Aggie View Post
If the ball is dead, and the contact is not intentional or flagrant, how can the foul be committed?
Check out the airborne shooter section under Rule 4.
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Old Thu Nov 05, 2009, 09:11am
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Originally Posted by Texas Aggie View Post
If the ball is dead, and the contact is not intentional or flagrant, how can the foul be committed?
There are additional ways a personal foul can be committed with a dead ball. See 4-1, especially the Note.
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