saving the ball by throwing it at the ref

[M&M Guy]

Originally Posted by Scratch85

I don't have books with me so correct me if I am wrong. 4-4-? lumps player and official together when determining ball location. Therefore, I am using the same criteria for player and official.

I think the case book uses the "same as touching the floor where the official is standing" reference.

4-4-4 is the rule. However, the wording is slightly different than what you remember, hence our discussion. "A ball which touches a player or an official is the same as the ball touching the floor at that individual's location." 4-35 covers player location, but does not specifically mention the location of an official. So, when the ball hits the official's leg that is inbounds, is "the ball touching the floor at that individual's location" inbounds?

Originally Posted by Scratch85

In your argument; is an official who's left foot is touching inbounds and who's right foot is not touching the floor but clearly outside the inbounds playing area still inbounds? What if the ball hits his right foot and caroms inbounds?

How would that be any different than hitting a player's foot/hand/torso/head in that same situation? Clearly still inbounds.

Originally Posted by Scratch85

I do not believe an official can be inbounds and OOB or in the FC and the BC at the same time.

Can you find the rule reference or case play to back that up? Again, that's the direction I'm leaning, but I wish someone could back up their argument with hard evidence one way or the other. If not, mick's suggetion is best: get out of the way so you don't have to make that decision!