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The official was straddling the line and the ball hit the official's inbound foot ? |
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Ok, just to add to mick's question - what if the player hadn't used their dribble yet, and there is no illegal dribble violation?
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I've got an OOB. I don't have my books with me but somewhere around 4-4, I think it refers to a ball touching a ref as having the same location as that individual. If the ref has one foot OOB, then his location is OOB. That's my reasoning and I'm sticking with it.
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However, you're thinking the official is deemed OOB, because one foot is out, even though the ball touched the leg that is still inbounds. That would be correct if you were talking specifically about a player, which is covered in 4-35. But does that also cover the official's location? Isn't the official more like an "object", in terms of inbounds vs. OOB? If you consider an "object" to be OOB because part of it is, how come the backboard isn't considered OOB, since it's attached to something that is OOB? (Btw, I'm not 100% sure of the answer, so I would like to be convinced one way or the other. ![]()
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I consider the ref to have the same IB/OOB location as a player because he/she can change their location. Objects like a backboard cannot. In addition, not all of the backboard is considered inbounds. And the foot bone is connected to the ankle bone, the ankle bone is connected . . . well you know. ![]() |
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...Or what if the player's teammate touches first?
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Exactly, that would eliminate the dribble violation.
These kids are just trying to get out of answering the question. ![]()
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