Timeout or not

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by Mike51

The coach, with about 9 seconds left, looks right at the ref and says, 'Time". He also makes a "T" signal with his hands. Ref looks at him and does nothing. Point guard (with ball) also asks for a TO.

The official is wrong not to grant the time out. especially since it was asked for basically three times, verbal - signal - verbal.

Originally Posted by Mike51

Near the end of the qtr, losing team A scores a fast break lay-up. The ball falls directly into the hands of a Team A player. He immediately passes the ball to the official on the endline. All of a sudden, the ref who was on the other end of the court, blows his whistle, charges up the court to the table, and issues a delay of game warning to Team A.

A fan about halfway up in the stands, yells, "Why don't you call your end of the court? The ref then turns, looks up in the stands, and yells "Shut up".

based on the rule: I find it hard to even make the warning here
ART. 6 . . . Delay the game by acts such as:

b. Failing when in possession, to immediately pass the ball to the nearer official when a violation or foul is called.

While not exactly the same if the ball lands in the kids hands - giving it directly to the official would be hard to come off as delay of game.

coming from the opposite endline and engaging the fans in "conversation" will probably not be a resume builder for next year.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

While not exactly the same if the ball lands in the kids hands - giving it directly to the official would be hard to come off as delay of game.

I think it certainly could, if the new offense was trying to get the ball to get it in and push in transition, or if the scoring team was trying to set up a press. Those two or three seconds would be crucial.

In a blow out, from new Lead? Not a chance.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

based on the rule: I find it hard to even make the warning here
ART. 6 . . . Delay the game by acts such as:

b. Failing when in possession, to immediately pass the ball to the nearer official when a violation or foul is called.

While not exactly the same if the ball lands in the kids hands - giving it directly to the official would be hard to come off as delay of game.

coming from the opposite endline and engaging the fans in "conversation" will probably not be a resume builder for next year.

That's not even the right rule.

Try 4-47-3.

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

That's not even the right rule.

Try 4-47-3.

Right you are except that is not what I said what I said was you can infer from this rule that giving the ball directly to an official when in your possession and the ball becomes or is dead is not delaying the game.

So what you are telling me is that in the third quarter of a blow out - if the ball comes through the basket and lands in a players hands (of the team that is losing) - and he tosses it directly to an official you are going to determine that to be delay of the game. and you are going to do it from the the new lead position?
Rule 4 Definitions
SECTION 47 WARNING FOR DELAY
ART. 3 . . . For interfering with the ball following a goal as in 10-1-5d.
Rule 10 Fouls and Penalties
SECTION 1 TEAM TECHNICAL
ART. 5 . . . Allow the game to develop into an actionless contest, this includes the following and similar acts:
d. Interfering with the ball following a goal after any team warning for delay.

this was the third quarter without any warning being given prior and how is this making it an actionless contest?
We will just have to disagree on that point.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

Right you are except that is not what I said what I said was you can infer from this rule that giving the ball directly to an official when in your possession and the ball becomes or is dead is not delaying the game.

There is no need to infer anything as there is a rule actually requiring a player to pass the ball to an official WHEN A WHISTLE BLOWS or it is a technical foul. That's 10-1-5b.
Since this situation isn't after a whistle, but just after a made goal, the individual delay provisions and the team actionless contest rule don't apply. Only the team delay provision has merit here. The actionless contest rule would kick in when a team repeats one of those four actions.
That's why I wrote that you were quoting the wrong rule. No other rule can even come into consideration in this case.

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

So what you are telling me is that in the third quarter of a blow out - if the ball comes through the basket and lands in a players hands (of the team that is losing) - and he tosses it directly to an official you are going to determine that to be delay of the game. and you are going to do it from the the new lead position?
Rule 4 Definitions
SECTION 47 WARNING FOR DELAY
ART. 3 . . . For interfering with the ball following a goal as in 10-1-5d.
Rule 10 Fouls and Penalties
SECTION 1 TEAM TECHNICAL
ART. 5 . . . Allow the game to develop into an actionless contest, this includes the following and similar acts:
d. Interfering with the ball following a goal after any team warning for delay.

The official is perfectly within his rights to decide that this action constitutes interfering with the ball following a goal. There is no denying that the player touched it and threw it somewhere. Not saying that I would make that determination, but I also can't state that any official doing so is totally wrong. I would even be likely to make this determination if the team was repeatedly catching the ball as it fell from the net and passing it to the nearest official. They have no right to do that. They need to leave the ball alone and allow the other team to collect it.
If my partner is not properly enforcing this rule, I would have no problem doing so. I don't care if I am the Lead, Center, or Trail. Nowhere in the rules does it state that only the new Trail official can make this call.

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

this was the third quarter without any warning being given prior and how is this making it an actionless contest?
We will just have to disagree on that point.

As I just stated above it doesn't make it an actionless contest. That rule is completely inapplicable precisely because, as you note, no prior warning has been given. There has to be a repeated infraction of the interfering with the ball prohibition for the team to be guilty of creating an actionless contest. Do you understand that?

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

The official is perfectly within his rights to decide that this action constitutes interfering with the ball following a goal. There is no denying that the player touched it and threw it somewhere. Not saying that I would make that determination, but I also can't state that any official doing so is totally wrong. I would even be likely to make this determination if the team was repeatedly catching the ball as it fell from the net and passing it to the nearest official. They have no right to do that. They need to leave the ball alone and allow the other team to collect it.

While by the exact rule you would be correct, you could do stop the game and issue a warning.
However based on the OP I still would not have done it - and in an evaluation of the official I would have not dinged him for his rules knowledge - I would issue with his game managment.
Based on the OP this is not a good managment of the game and is not a call that needs to be made - it is a game interupter and needs to be let go and keep the game moving.