Timeout or not

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

That's not even the right rule.

Try 4-47-3.

Right you are except that is not what I said what I said was you can infer from this rule that giving the ball directly to an official when in your possession and the ball becomes or is dead is not delaying the game.

So what you are telling me is that in the third quarter of a blow out - if the ball comes through the basket and lands in a players hands (of the team that is losing) - and he tosses it directly to an official you are going to determine that to be delay of the game. and you are going to do it from the the new lead position?
Rule 4 Definitions
SECTION 47 WARNING FOR DELAY
ART. 3 . . . For interfering with the ball following a goal as in 10-1-5d.
Rule 10 Fouls and Penalties
SECTION 1 TEAM TECHNICAL
ART. 5 . . . Allow the game to develop into an actionless contest, this includes the following and similar acts:
d. Interfering with the ball following a goal after any team warning for delay.

this was the third quarter without any warning being given prior and how is this making it an actionless contest?
We will just have to disagree on that point.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

Right you are except that is not what I said what I said was you can infer from this rule that giving the ball directly to an official when in your possession and the ball becomes or is dead is not delaying the game.

There is no need to infer anything as there is a rule actually requiring a player to pass the ball to an official WHEN A WHISTLE BLOWS or it is a technical foul. That's 10-1-5b.
Since this situation isn't after a whistle, but just after a made goal, the individual delay provisions and the team actionless contest rule don't apply. Only the team delay provision has merit here. The actionless contest rule would kick in when a team repeats one of those four actions.
That's why I wrote that you were quoting the wrong rule. No other rule can even come into consideration in this case.

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

So what you are telling me is that in the third quarter of a blow out - if the ball comes through the basket and lands in a players hands (of the team that is losing) - and he tosses it directly to an official you are going to determine that to be delay of the game. and you are going to do it from the the new lead position?
Rule 4 Definitions
SECTION 47 WARNING FOR DELAY
ART. 3 . . . For interfering with the ball following a goal as in 10-1-5d.
Rule 10 Fouls and Penalties
SECTION 1 TEAM TECHNICAL
ART. 5 . . . Allow the game to develop into an actionless contest, this includes the following and similar acts:
d. Interfering with the ball following a goal after any team warning for delay.

The official is perfectly within his rights to decide that this action constitutes interfering with the ball following a goal. There is no denying that the player touched it and threw it somewhere. Not saying that I would make that determination, but I also can't state that any official doing so is totally wrong. I would even be likely to make this determination if the team was repeatedly catching the ball as it fell from the net and passing it to the nearest official. They have no right to do that. They need to leave the ball alone and allow the other team to collect it.
If my partner is not properly enforcing this rule, I would have no problem doing so. I don't care if I am the Lead, Center, or Trail. Nowhere in the rules does it state that only the new Trail official can make this call.

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

this was the third quarter without any warning being given prior and how is this making it an actionless contest?
We will just have to disagree on that point.

As I just stated above it doesn't make it an actionless contest. That rule is completely inapplicable precisely because, as you note, no prior warning has been given. There has to be a repeated infraction of the interfering with the ball prohibition for the team to be guilty of creating an actionless contest. Do you understand that?

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

The official is perfectly within his rights to decide that this action constitutes interfering with the ball following a goal. There is no denying that the player touched it and threw it somewhere. Not saying that I would make that determination, but I also can't state that any official doing so is totally wrong. I would even be likely to make this determination if the team was repeatedly catching the ball as it fell from the net and passing it to the nearest official. They have no right to do that. They need to leave the ball alone and allow the other team to collect it.

While by the exact rule you would be correct, you could do stop the game and issue a warning.
However based on the OP I still would not have done it - and in an evaluation of the official I would have not dinged him for his rules knowledge - I would issue with his game managment.
Based on the OP this is not a good managment of the game and is not a call that needs to be made - it is a game interupter and needs to be let go and keep the game moving.