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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 09:13am
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Interesting question. I'll definitely be looking for others' responses to this one.

First, a couple questions. Had the ball been released? If not, was it beyond the boundary when it was slapped by A1?

These are the important questions. It can't be a T if the ball had been released. It also can't be a T if the ball is across the boundary, even if it hasn't been released. If the ball was released and A1 hit it, I'd just have an OB violation on A1, and B would get the ball for a spot throw-in. If the ball hadn't been released but was across the boundary, I'd probably go with a boundary plane delay warning on the principle that the throw-in hadn't been released and A was across the boundary when making the play on the ball.

If the ball hasn't been released and is outside the boundary, this is a T.

All this is predicated on the fact that A1 was attempting to come right back onto the court and not unduly delaying his return.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 09:18am
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Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
Interesting question. I'll definitely be looking for others' responses to this one.

First, a couple questions. Had the ball been released? If not, was it beyond the boundary when it was slapped by A1?
Yes, the ball had been released. No, it was not beyond the boundary.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 09:22am
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Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef View Post
Yes, the ball had been released. No, it was not beyond the boundary.
Then unless there's a rule I'm unfamiliar with, a T is not the appropriate call.

I'm letting A play it, but if he's coming from OB, then he's probably OB when he hits the ball. Violation, B's ball for a designated spot throw-in.

By the way, what did your partner rule?
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 09:39am
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Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
Then unless there's a rule I'm unfamiliar with, a T is not the appropriate call.

Under FED rules, the defender is allowed to contact the ball once it's been released. 9-2-10.

That said, I'm "sure" the rule assumes the "normal" throw-in scenario -- The inbounder is OOB and all defensive players are inbounds. And, while I wouldn't penalize the defense just foe being OOB (since s/he went out legally), I don't think the intent is to allow the player to "take advantage" of that situation. So, I could perhaps see a delay warning.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 10:04am
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Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Under FED rules, the defender is allowed to contact the ball once it's been released. 9-2-10.

That said, I'm "sure" the rule assumes the "normal" throw-in scenario -- The inbounder is OOB and all defensive players are inbounds. And, while I wouldn't penalize the defense just foe being OOB (since s/he went out legally), I don't think the intent is to allow the player to "take advantage" of that situation. So, I could perhaps see a delay warning.

Agreed, my thoughts until I read your post.
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 10:23am
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Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Under FED rules, the defender is allowed to contact the ball once it's been released. 9-2-10.

That said, I'm "sure" the rule assumes the "normal" throw-in scenario -- The inbounder is OOB and all defensive players are inbounds. And, while I wouldn't penalize the defense just foe being OOB (since s/he went out legally), I don't think the intent is to allow the player to "take advantage" of that situation. So, I could perhaps see a delay warning.
Bob, I agree with the you that there is not an intent to allow A1 to take advantage of being out of bounds, but I am curious as to how you can justify a delay of game warning since, strictly speaking, the delay of game warning on throw-ins is limited to breaking the plane while not making contact with the ball (Technical) or inbounder (foul).

I know that there have been several other "delaying" situations in which we have determined that a delay-of-game warning is not appropriate -- for example, the case of the FT in which the defensive team does not occupy the first positions, etc.

How can we justify a DOG warning in this case?
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 11:00am
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Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef View Post
How can we justify a DOG warning in this case?
I'm not Bob. But here's my guess about his answer: a DOG warning is appropriate when the defense crosses the plane of the end line. Ordinarily, a player out of bounds after a layup would not warrant it. But, I surmise, Bob is thinking the present situation would warrant more than just an OOB call.

I agree. Think of it this way: by the defender making this play, he puts the other team at a disadvantage. On the initial throw-in, they could run the end line. After OOB it's a spot throw-in.
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 11:06am
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Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
I agree. Think of it this way: by the defender making this play, he puts the other team at a disadvantage. On the initial throw-in, they could run the end line. After OOB it's a spot throw-in.
True. Team B lost the end line run, but I am asking for the rule/case that allows us to give a DOG warning in this case. Other than committing a violation, A1 does not seem to have broken any rule. He legally left the court. He was attempting to quickly get back onto the court. Then, after the ball left the inbounder's hand, he batted the ball. Unfortunately, he had not regained status inbounds, but I am struggling to find a rule/case that indicates a DOG warning, here.
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 11:07am
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Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
Think of it this way: by the defender making this play, he puts the other team at a disadvantage. On the initial throw-in, they could run the end line. After OOB it's a spot throw-in.
Makes good sense, nice pick-up!
Any similar case plays out there??
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 01:05pm
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Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
On the initial throw-in, they could run the end line. After OOB it's a spot throw-in.
This might be a stretch, but couldn't we rule that the defensive team violated during the throw-in? Therefore, team A would maintain the right to run the endline (similar to a kick). The ball was never legally touched.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 01:11pm
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Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef View Post
Bob, I agree with the you that there is not an intent to allow A1 to take advantage of being out of bounds, but I am curious as to how you can justify a delay of game warning since, strictly speaking, the delay of game warning on throw-ins is limited to breaking the plane while not making contact with the ball (Technical) or inbounder (foul).
I'm not saying that I would call the DOG warning.

But, if we take the (very slow developing play) where A1 crosses the line, then B1 releases the ball, then A1 makes contact with the ball -- it's clearly a DOG warning.

So, while I'd give A1 some slack for being OOB when the throw-in starts, I think A1 might lose that slack if s/he then gains an advantage from it -- namely contacting the ball. It's kind of a "delayed violation / warning."

I think it's really a 2-3 situation -- but I could see the NFHS coming out with an interp that makes it a DOG.
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Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 03:25pm
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Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
I'm not saying that I would call the DOG warning.

But, if we take the (very slow developing play) where A1 crosses the line, then B1 releases the ball, then A1 makes contact with the ball -- it's clearly a DOG warning.

So, while I'd give A1 some slack for being OOB when the throw-in starts, I think A1 might lose that slack if s/he then gains an advantage from it -- namely contacting the ball. It's kind of a "delayed violation / warning."

I think it's really a 2-3 situation -- but I could see the NFHS coming out with an interp that makes it a DOG.
Makes sense. This situation has generated some interesting discussion in our area. Perhaps a Case Book Sitch for 2009-10.
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 10:18am
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Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
Then unless there's a rule I'm unfamiliar with, a T is not the appropriate call.

I'm letting A play it, but if he's coming from OB, then he's probably OB when he hits the ball. Violation, B's ball for a designated spot throw-in.

By the way, what did your partner rule?
Partner ruled that A1 had not established status in bounds, therefore, when he touched the ball it was a violation. B throw-in at the spot.
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  #14 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 22, 2009, 09:23am
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Originally Posted by CMHCoachNRef View Post
Yes, the ball had been released. No, it was not beyond the boundary.
That being said, no T just an OOB violation on A1 as he didn't establish being inbounds yet.

You are where you are 'til you get where you're going.
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