By unilateral decree...

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

That's what I was going to say. I'll also add that it'[s a specific rule added to the book to define "causes the ball to be OOB" this way. If FED wants backcourt to be the same, then they should change the rule, and not just issue an interp.

Didn't the backcourt rule used to talk about causing the ball to go to backcourt? Like 20 years ago or so? But, iirc, even then "cause" was interpreted, or eventually came to be interpreted, as last to touch?

Anybody remember that far back?