I blew one last night..

[MidMadness]

Throw in at the division line...A1 throws in to A2 in front court, doesn't catch it, just taps it back to A1 in the backcourt, I toot...Backcourt violation...No one in the whole gym knew I blew it, including my partner, My thinking is there was never any team control in the frontcourt off the throw-in, so therefore no backcourt violaton..am I correct ??

When A2 taps it, where's the location of the ball?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Ch1town

When A2 taps it, where's the location of the ball?

Inbounds.

[Nevadaref]

Quote:

Originally Posted by Ch1town
When A2 taps it, where's the location of the ball?

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Inbounds.

That's an inside joke!

Wait, we aren't supposed to be making jokes on the forum anymore or having any fun whatsoever.

[Scrapper1]

Originally Posted by MidMadness

there was never any team control in the frontcourt off the throw-in, so therefore no backcourt violaton..

Unfortunately, yes, you're correct. It was a bad call. Betcha don't make that one again, though, will you?

[Lotto]

In NCAA, even though there is team control on a throw-in, this play would still not be a violation. See A.R. 212 (3).

[fullor30]

Originally Posted by MidMadness

Throw in at the division line...A1 throws in to A2 in front court, doesn't catch it, just taps it back to A1 in the backcourt, I toot...Backcourt violation...No one in the whole gym knew I blew it, including my partner, My thinking is there was never any team control in the frontcourt off the throw-in, so therefore no backcourt violaton..am I correct ??

Could you argue that A2 had enough 'control' to redirect the ball back to A1?

Just askin'

[PSidbury]

Originally Posted by fullor30

Could you argue that A2 had enough 'control' to redirect the ball back to A1?

I'm thinking the same thing.
Was A2's re-direction of ball back to A1 "controlled"?

I probably would have called backcourt too if the tap was a "pass" and not a "fumble".

Thanks,
Paul

[Adam]

This really "smells" like a violation to me.

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

This really "smells" like a violation to me.

Concur

Originally Posted by Ch1town

When A2 taps it, where's the location of the ball?

Controlled tap from F/C to the B/C

[Scrapper1]

There's no such thing as a controlled tap. Either the player establishes control -- holding or dribbling the live ball inbounds -- or he doesn't. Ask yourself this: would you have granted a time-out to the player if he'd asked for it during his "controlled tap". If the answer is no, then NO VIOLATION.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by MidMadness

Throw in at the division line...A1 throws in to A2 in front court, doesn't catch it, just taps it back to A1 in the backcourt, I toot...Backcourt violation...No one in the whole gym knew I blew it, including my partner, My thinking is there was never any team control in the frontcourt off the throw-in, so therefore no backcourt violaton..am I correct ??

If it was a "controlled tap" (and I know that's not a defined term), then I'd also have a violation. If A2 fumbled tha ball, or it was a bad pass and A2 was just abtting it away from a defensive player, etc., then the play would be legal.

[A Pennsylvania Coach]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

If it was a "controlled tap" (and I know that's not a defined term), then I'd also have a violation. If A2 fumbled tha ball, or it was a bad pass and A2 was just abtting it away from a defensive player, etc., then the play would be legal.

Agreed

[referee99]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

If it was a "controlled tap" (and I know that's not a defined term), then I'd also have a violation. If A2 fumbled tha ball, or it was a bad pass and A2 was just abtting it away from a defensive player, etc., then the play would be legal.

That our tapper does not have player control.
We cannot have team control until we have player control.
No violation.

I know it looks wrong, and may actually smell wrong, but there is no violation here.

[CoachP]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

If it was a "controlled tap" (and I know that's not a defined term), then I'd also have a violation. If A2 fumbled tha ball, or it was a bad pass and A2 was just abtting it away from a defensive player, etc., then the play would be legal.

Now we could go back to the ol' A1 offensive rebound "controlled tap" that ends up untouched in the BC until A2 touches. We'd have to apply the same?

I agree with others it's looks funny, smells bad, but legal.

IMO